Physical Exams, Vaccinations, Biosecurity

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87 Terms

1
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describe aging cattle by teeth. (give the milestones)

  • central permanent incisors (age 2)

  • second permanent incisors (erupt 30 months, fully developed 3 yrs)

  • full set permanent incisors (age 4-5 yrs)

  • central incisors show wear (6 yrs)

  • all incisors show significant wear (10 yrs)

2
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what should you look at when being “observant” during a physical exam?

  • herd

  • facility

  • sick animal/animals

  • pasture condition

  • hay quality

  • are other animal species in the same pasture?

3
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what are the “big things” when performing a physical exam?

  • be observant

  • take a good history

  • identify potential zoonotic threats

  • wear gloves

  • proper restraint

4
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a physical exam should always include a thorough _______ of the animal and the herd

history

5
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when checking the herd for overall appearance and general health, what are some questions to ask yourself?

  • are there animals that appear too thin?

  • are there animals that appear sick and are laying down away from the herd/flock?

  • is the farm clean?

  • what is the deworming and vaccination schedule?

  • have any new animals been recently introduced into the herd?

6
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what are we looking at when determining body conformation?

  • appearance

  • skeletal structure

  • muscling

  • fat balance

  • straightness of lines

  • structural soundness

<ul><li><p>appearance</p></li><li><p>skeletal structure</p></li><li><p>muscling</p></li><li><p>fat balance</p></li><li><p>straightness of lines</p></li><li><p>structural soundness</p></li></ul><p></p>
7
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describe the ideal body conformation

  • long, straight back

  • no excess fat on brisket, flank, tail head

  • heavily muscled

  • proper height

  • max development of the round, rump, loin, rib

8
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what’s the goal to keep cattle at an ideal body conformation?

produce maximum amount of high value cuts

9
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what is the BCS scale for beef cattle?

1-9 (ideal 5-6)

10
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what is the BCS scale for dairy cattle?

1-5 (ideal 3)

11
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why is it important to record BCS in medical records?

  • very thin and very obese animals can have reproductive problems

  • nutrition and BCS help assess nutrition

12
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BCS 1

  • BCS 1 are rare

  • extremely emaciated

  • NOT fit for transport**

  • very weak

  • reluctant to move

  • most often have a disease or high parasite burden

13
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what is essential to evaluate an animal?

proper restraint

14
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what restraint option is ideal?

cattle chute

15
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what should you look for when examining the overall appearance of individual animals?

skin lesions, external parasites

16
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what is the normal TPR (temperature, pulse, respiration) range for adult cattle and calves?

T - 100-102

P - 50-80 BPM Calf: 100-140 BPM

R - 25-50 BPM Calf: 30-60 BPM

17
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what to look for when examining the head?

  • eyes: should be BAR, clear

  • nose: no discharge or lesions

  • mouth: no sores/lesions/bad odor

  • ears: discharge, ticks, mites

18
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what else should you look for on a physical exam?

  • neck: pain, lymph node enlargement

  • heart/lungs: normal auscultation

  • gut sounds

  • examine all 4 legs

    • joints

    • hooves

  • examine udder and scrotum

  • general appearance of skin and all lymph nodes

  • rear end

    • evidence of loose stool

    • estrus in female?

19
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what is rectal palpation for?

used for pregnancy detection in horses and cows

20
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auscultation definition

using a stethoscope to listen to the heart and lungs

21
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what animal has a thin rectum and tears easily?

horses

22
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the rectum sits ________ to the vulva

dorsal

23
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what is semen collection and testing for?

used to test fertility/assess reproductive health

24
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when is semen collection/testing performed?

before breeding season and/or selling the animal

25
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what is an electroejaculator?

  • rectally palpate to remove feces

  • place the electrode in the rectum

  • the pulse is gradually increased until the bull ejaculates

26
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what to look for when viewing semen under the microscope?

  • assess number of sperm

  • assess for abnormal sperm

  • assess motility

27
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what all is involved when processing cattle?

  • castration

  • dehorning

  • vaccinations

  • animal identification

28
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castration

  • eliminates unwanted pregnancy

  • reduces aggression

  • increases human safety

  • ideally performed before 3 months of age

    • most often performed as a newborn

    • or at the time of weaning

  • surgical or banding

29
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dehorning

  • reduces animal and human injury

  • ideally performed before 3 months of age

  • consult a veterinarian for pain management

30
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vaccinations

varies based on operation and herd health protocols developed with your veterinarian

31
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animal identification

ear notching, ear tags, branding

32
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what are some additional helpful methods?

  • replace any missing ID tags

  • have medical records for each animal and a herd medical record

33
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what is dehorning?

cutting the horn growth away from the skull

34
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what is disbudding?

performed at a young age on dairy calves with a hot iron or caustic paste

35
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when should caustic paste be used?

should only be used if the area is covered or the calf is pulled from the dam

36
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what can caustic paste damage and how?

can damage the udder as the calf is attempting to nurse

37
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disbudding destroys what?

horn producing cells

38
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at what age can disbudding be performed?

can only be performed on calves less than 8 weeks of age before the horns become attached to the skull

39
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polled is a _______ gene

dominant

40
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banding

  • involves placing a rubber ring around the pampiniform plexus to restrict blood supply to the testicle

  • often done in pasture

41
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when is it best to band cattle?

within first week of life

42
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what must you make sure of when banding?

be sure both testicles are in the band

43
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cutting castration

  • involves excising the scrotum with a blade and pull the testicles out of the body

    • open - excising the Tunica Vaginalis

    • closed - excising scrotum only

  • calf is confined in a squeeze chute

44
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when should cutting castration be done?

often done as a newborn or around 6 months of age at weaning

45
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name common cattle vaccines

  • IBR (Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis)

  • BVD (Bovine Viral Diarrhea)

  • BRSV (Bovine Syncytial Virus)

  • PI3 (Parainfluenza)

  • Leptospirosis

  • Vibrio - heifers and cows before breeding

  • 7-way Blackleg

  • Brucellosis (only given to heifers under 12 months of age)

  • + / - Anaplasmosis

46
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what is brucellosis?

an intracellular bacterial zoonotic disease

47
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the many variants of brucellosis depend on what?

the species they infect

48
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is there an effective treatment for brucellosis?

no

49
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brucellosis causes late term _________ in cattle

abortion

50
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what species can brucellosis affect?

cattle, pigs, horses, sheep, goats, dogs

51
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when should heifers be vaccinated for Brucelloses?

between 4-12 months old

52
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where are cows ID’d after being given the brucellosis vaccine?

they are tattooed and tagged in the right ear

53
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the brucellosis vaccine is a modified ______ vaccine

live

54
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why are bulls not vaccinated against brucellosis?

they may develop orchitis (inflammation of testicle(s))

55
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what is anaplasmosis?

a bacterial infection that causes severe, life-threatening anemia (Anaplasma marginate)

56
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what animals spread anaplasmosis?

mostly by horse flies but sometimes by other biting flies, mosquitoes, ticks and needles and other surgical instruments

57
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how is anaplasmosis transmitted?

infection occurs by the transmission from infected RBC’s to another animal

58
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in what cattle breed does anaplasmosis most commonly occur in?

purebred herefords

59
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clinical signs of anaplasmosis

  • aggression

  • staggering

  • weakness

  • jaundice/icterus (yellowing of the mucous membranes)

60
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treatment for anaplasmosis

tetracycline

61
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prevention against anaplasmosis

  • no approved vaccine

  • control horse flies and other biting insects

  • do not share needles or surgical instruments between animals

  • chlortetracycline mineral supplements

62
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what is beef quality assurance (BQA)?

a voluntary program designed to help farmers maximize safe, beef production by teaching proper injection sites, proper management, and diligent record keeping

63
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more than ____% of US beef comes from BQA certified farmers and ranchers

85%

64
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deworming can be administered in these 3 ways:

  • injectable

  • pour-on

  • oral (drench)

65
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all injections must be given in __________ to minimize lesions in high priced areas of meat

front of the shoulder

66
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how far apart should injections be given?

4 inches

67
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what type of injection is preferred over IM?

SQ

68
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never administer more than _____ IM per injection site

10cc

69
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always use the smallest needle possible to complete the injection but large enough to prevent…

breaking off in the muscle

70
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the larger the bore, the smaller the ______

gauge

71
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what are the steps to take if a needle were to break off in an animal?

  • attempt to remove the entire needle immediately

  • mark and record the area

  • sort the animal from the group

  • call a veterinarian for surgical removal

72
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if a broken needle cannot be retrieved from the animal by a veterinarian, what happens next?

the animal cannot be harvested at a custom packer; the animal must be identified and cannot be marketed with the rest of the lot; these animals must be transported for harvest immediately

73
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ideally, you should change needles between every ________

animal

74
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why should you not mix MLV (modified-live vaccines) before they’re needed?

they can lose their effectiveness and cannot be stored

75
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MLV should be given within an _______ after mixing

hour

76
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(true/false) you can vigorously shake and leave MLV in the sunlight without any adverse effects on the vaccine

false, this may inactivate the vaccine

77
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define internal biosecurity

measures taken to prevent transmission of diseases between different areas of the farm

78
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management practices that follow internal biosecurity

  • isolating sick animals

  • cleaning and disinfecting 

  • vaccination

79
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define external biosecurity

measures taken to prevent diseases from entering a farm from outside sources

80
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management practices that follow external biosecurity

  • quarantining new animals for a min. of 30 days

  • limiting visitors

  • employee training on how to handle sick animals 

81
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how is disease spread?

  • aerosol: nasal secretions, coughing, sneezing

  • direct contact: open wound or mucous membrane

  • oral-ingestion

  • reproductive: spread during mating or gestation

  • vehicles: contaminated objects used on multiple animals

  • vector-borne: spread by insects or ticks

  • fomites: contaminated soil, water, food

82
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you are called to a farm to assess a sick animal. you immediately see there are multiple animals sick. what should you do about your other scheduled farm calls for the day?

call other farms and inform them of the situation. try to reschedule to another day or disinfect and change clothes

83
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when to choose treatment over euthanasia?

  • likelihood of recovery

  • freely able to stand and walk

  • ability for transport

  • ability to get feed and water

  • remember withdrawal times

84
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when to choose euthanasia over treatment?

  • non repairable fractures of the hip, legs, spine

  • immobility or inability to stand

  • loss of production and quality of life

  • emergent conditions causing excruciating pain

  • animals too weak to be transported

  • paralysis

  • diseases with no effective TX or pose a significant risk to human health

85
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can cattle euthanized with injectable euthanasia be accepted for rendering?

no, due to Federal regulation

86
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tools for euthanasia

  • gun

  • penetrating captive bolt

  • injectable solution — cannot enter the food chain

87
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what is the location of optimal point of entry for shooting a cow?

intersection of 2 imaginary lines drawn from the lateral canthus (outer corner of the eye) to the center of the base of the horn 

<p>intersection of 2 imaginary lines drawn from the lateral canthus (outer corner of the eye) to the center of the base of the horn&nbsp;</p>