PHARMA 2ND SOURCE FE

Which of the following acts on V2 receptors in the tubules with high affinity making it useful for the treatment of hyponatremia and acute renal failure?

A. Conivaptan

B. Dapagliflozin

C. Desmopressin

D. Tolvaptan

D. Tolvaptan

This is the only available growth hormone receptor antagonist approved for the treatment of acromegaly or gigantism.

A. Somatostatin

B. Lanreotide

C. Pegvisomant

D. Octreotide

C. Pegvisomant

36 years old female, 18 weeks AOG (G0P0), was seen in your clinic due to palpitations and progressive weight loss. Symptoms were noted to start 6 months prior to consultation. On physical examination, HR: 120 BPM, she had exophthalmos, palpable thyroid, regular rhythm with hand tremors. TSH: < 0.0005 mIU/mL. The preferred treatment for this patient is:

A. Levothyroxine 50 mcg per day

B. Methimazole 60 mg per day

C. Prednisone 20 mg 3x a day

D. Propylthiouracil 50 mg 2x a day

B. Methimazole 60 mg per day

34 years old male was seen in the emergency room due to severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and tachypnea with fruity odor breath. His random CBG was 567 mg/dL, pH: 7.9, ketones: 4 (N.V.: < 0.06 mg/mL). Which of the following agents should be started?

A. Ultra long-acting insulin

B. Rapid-acting insulin (Apidra)

C. Dapagliflozin

D. Afrezaa (Inhaled insulin)

B. Rapid-acting insulin (Apidra)

Which of the following oral anti-diabetic medications promotes the release of the insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas?

A. Glibenclamide

B. Acarbose

C. Thiozolidenediones

D. Bromocriptine

A. Glibenclamide

Which of the following medications are taken pre-meals to prevent absorption of the carbohydrates?

A. Miglitol

B. Repaglinide

C. Metformin

D. Sitagliptin

A. Miglitol

45 years old AM was a diagnosed case of chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetic nephropathy and is currently on twice weekly hemodialysis. His nephrologist noticed low to low normal in the calcium level ranging from 7.5 to 8.5 mg/dL while his PTH was 345 pg/mL (N.V.: 10-65 pg/mL). What is the drug that can be given to treat this patient?

A. Estrogen

B. Alendronate

C. Cinacalcet

D. Calcitonin

C. Cinacalcet

64 years old, menopause, was treated with a nasal spray for osteoporosis, containing a protein that inhibits bone resorption. The nasal spray contains?

A. Calcitriol

B. Calcium Carbonate

C. Cinacalcet

D. Calcitonin

D. Calcitonin

What antiarrhythmic drug can cause either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism?

A. Lidocaine

B. Sotalol

C. Amiodarone

D. Diltiazem

C. Amiodarone

The following is true of synthetic levothyroxine except:

A. Has to be taken in empty stomach

B. Drug of choice for hypothyroidism

C. Has a half life of 7 days

D. Can cause agranulocytosis

D. Can cause agranulocytosis

Propranolol is the beta blocker given in patients with thyrotoxicosis because:

A. At high doses, it blocks peripheral conversion of T3 to T4

B. It has a highly selective beta blocker

C. Can be given to patients with hyperreactive airways

D. Can increase appetite

A. At high doses, it blocks peripheral conversion of T3 to T4

Vasopressin promotes water reabsorption in the collecting tubules because of its interaction with?

A. V3 receptors

B. V2 receptors

C. V1 receptors

D. V4 receptors

B. V2 receptors

26 years old female, G0P0, sought endocrine evaluation due to amenorrhea. Prolactin was done with 1,700 (elevated), low TSH, LH, FSH. Which of the following agents can mitigate hyperprolactinemia?

A. Dopamine

B. Somatostatin

C. Bromocriptine

D. Levothyroxine

C. Bromocriptine

Which of the following GLP1 receptor agonists demonstrates > 90% homology with the native GLP1?

A. Liraglutide

B. Exenatide

C. Lixisenatide

D. Sitagliptin

A. Liraglutide

The following agents can be used to correct hypercalcemia except:

A. Thiazide

B. Pamidronate

C. Denosumab

D. Sodium Chloride Solution

A. Thiazide

A 36 year-old woman at 28 weeks AOG, G1P0, had a FBS: 120 mg/dL, 1-hour glucose: 235 mg/dL, 2-hour glucose: 182 mg/dL. Which of the following agents can be used to address her hyperglycemia?

A. Degludec

B. Glargine

C. Regular insulin

D. Dapagliflozin

C. Regular insulin

The following agents increase bone mass, except:

A. Romosozumab

B. Teriparatide

C. Calcitonin

D. Denosumab

C. Calcitonin

Which of the following drugs is most likely to lower serum PTH concentration?

A. Calcitriol

B. Cholecalciferol

C. Pamidronate

D. Ibandronic Acid

A. Calcitriol

72 years old male, diagnosed with HF with REF (reduced ejection fraction) and creatinine of 0.89 mg/dL was also found out to have new onset diabetes mellitus 2. Which of the following agents should be avoided, used to address hyperglycemia?

A. Saxagliptin and Pioglitazone

B. Dapagliflozin and Metformin

C. Glipizide and Linagliptin

D. Empagliflozin and Teneligliptin

A. Saxagliptin and Pioglitazone

The following agents are indicated hyperphosphatemia, except:

A. Sevelamer

B. Lanthanum Carbonate

C. Calcium Carbonate

D. Strontium Ranelate

D. Strontium Ranelate

A semi-autonomous part of the ANS located in the gastrointestinal tract, with specific functions for the controls of this organ system.

A. Central Nervous System

B. Enteric Nervous System

C. Sympathetic ANS

D. Parasympathetic ANS

B. Enteric Nervous System

For acute iron toxicity, urgent treatment is necessary. _____, a potent iron-chelating compound, can be given to bind iron that has already been absorbed and to promote its excretion in urine and feces.

A. Deferiprone

B. Deferasirox

C. Deferoxamine

D. Activated charcoal

C. Deferoxamine

A pure antagonist is preferred over older weak agonist-antagonist agents that had been used primarily as antagonists, usually given by injection and has a short duration of action in the treatment of acute opioid overdose:

A. Naltrexone

B. Nalmefene

C. Naloxegol

D. Naloxone

D. Naloxone

Drug that binds to the beta subunit of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and thereby inhibits RNA synthesis.

A. Rifampin

B. Isoniazid

C. Pyrazinamide

D. Ethambutol

A. Rifampin

Drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase, prolongs and intensifies transmitter action.

A. Neostigmine

B. Cocaine

C. Propranolol

D. Bethanechol

A. Neostigmine

It serves as a cofactor for several essential biochemical reactions in humans, deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia, gastrointestinal symptoms, and neurologic abnormalities, relatively common in older adults.

A. Pyridoxine

B. Biotin

C. Folic Acid

D. Cobalamin

D. Cobalamin

It inhibits angiogenesis and has anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory effects. It inhibits TNF-alpha, reduces phagocytosis by neutrophils, increases production of IL-10, withdrawn due to teratogenic effects.

A. Lenalidomide

B. Cytarabine

C. Thalidomide

D. Pomalidomide

C. Thalidomide

The drug of choice for the treatment of hydatid disease and cysticercosis.

A. Albendazole

B. Mebendazole

C. Doxycycline

D. Pyrantel Pamoate

A. Albendazole

It consists of muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, rapid onset tachycardia, and hypercapnia, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis, following exposure to one or more triggering agents. It is a rare but important cause of anesthetic morbidity and mortality.

A. Myasthenia Gravis

B. Freeman-Sheldon Syndrome

C. Malignant Hyperthermia

D. Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis

C. Malignant Hyperthermia

Azole of choice in the treatment and secondary prophylaxis of cryptococcal meningitis, no activity against aspergillus.

A. Ketoconazole

B. Itraconazole

C. Fluconazole

D. Voriconazole

C. Fluconazole

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the airways of asthmatic patients?

A. Airway Hyperreactivity

B. Bronchospasm

C. Inflammation

D. Smooth Muscle Relaxation

D. Smooth Muscle Relaxation

The molecular mechanisms by which B-agonists induce relaxation of airway smooth muscle include:

A. Lowering of [Ca2+]I concentration by active removal of Ca2+ from the cytosol into intracellular stores and out of the cell

B. Stimulation of the PLC-IP3 pathway

C. Myosin light chain kinase activation

D. Inhibition of myosin light chain phosphatase

A. Lowering of [Ca2+]I concentration by active removal of Ca2+ from the cytosol into intracellular stores and out of the cell

Some of the major adverse effects of B receptor agonists in the treatment of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are caused by stimulation of the following receptor/s in the heart:

A. A1 Receptors

B. A2 Receptors

C. B1 Receptors

D. B2 Receptors

C. B1 Receptors

A once-daily long-acting B adrenergic agonist for asthma and COPD (> 24 hours duration), which has a longer duration of action than salmeterol and formoterol:

A. Albuterol

B. Bitolterol

C. Fenoterol

D. Indacaterol

D. Indacaterol

Is a short-acting selective B2 receptor agonist with pharmacological properties and therapeutic indications similar to those of terbutaline:

A. Albuterol

B. Bitolterol

C. Fenoterol

D. Indacaterol

A. Albuterol

A relatively selective B2 agonist and structurally identical to albuterol except for the substitution of a pyridine ring for the benzene ring:

A. Levalbuterol

B. Fenoterol

C. Indacaterol

D. Pirbuterol

D. Pirbuterol

A short-acting B2 selective bronchodilator which contains a resorcinol ring and thus is not a substrate for a COMT methylation:

A. Terbutaline

B. Indacaterol

C. Formoterol

D. Salmeterol

A. Terbutaline

It was the first B2 selective drug widely used for the treatment of airway obstruction but no longer marketed in the U.S.:

A. Terbutaline

B. Indacaterol

C. Bitolterol

D. Isoetharine

D. Isoetharine

A novel B2 agonist in which the hydroxyl groups in the catechol moiety are protected by greater selectivity for B2 receptors than albuterol:

A. Terbutaline

B. Indacaterol

C. Bitolterol

D. Isoetharine

C. Bitolterol

A B2 selective agonist with a prolonged duration of action (> 12 hours); it has at least 50-fold greater selectivity for B2 receptors than albuterol:

A. Salmeterol

B. Indacaterol

C. Terbutaline

D. Fenoterol

A. Salmeterol

LD50 determination test is:

A. Miller-Thinner

B. Matter-Thicker

C. Miller-Tainter

D. Miller-Fowler

C. Miller-Tainter

Short-acting drug is:

A. Short latency, long duration

B. Long latency, short duration

C. Short latency, short duration

D. Long latency, long duration

C. Short latency, short duration

Synergism in this formula:

A. 1 + 1 = 11

B. 1 + 1 = 0

C. 1 + 0 = > 1

D. 1 + 1 = 2

A. 1 + 1 = 11

Morphine + naloxone demonstrates this experiment on:

A. Potentiation

B. Summation

C. Antagonism

D. Synergism

C. Antagonism

The normal value of LD50 toxicity test is:

A. 5-15 mg/100 g

B. 7-19 mg/100 g

C. 7-17 mg/100 g

D. 5-19 mg/100 g

C. 7-17 mg/100 g

In LD50 toxicity test, the standard drug used in correct concentration is:

A. 2% Procaine

B. 2% Lidocaine

C. 5% Chloroprocaine

D. 4% Benzocaine

B. 2% Lidocaine

The following drugs are considered chemotherapy as TMP, PMA, chloroguanide is a/an:

A. Anti-pyrimidine

B. Anti-folic acid

C. Anti-purine

D. Anti-topoisomerase

B. Anti-folic acid

A lipopeptide antibiotic active against enterococci and S. aureus is:

A. Vancomycin

B. Daptomycin

C. Fosfomycin

D. Telavancin

B. Daptomycin

A glycopeptide antibiotic active against gram (+) bacteria as staphylococci and anaerobes as C. difficile is:

A. Daptomycin

B. Vancomycin

C. Telavancin

D. Teicoplanin

B. Vancomycin

The common typical adverse reaction of vancomycin is allergic-like effect known as:

A. Mazzoti's Reaction

B. Red Man Syndrome

C. Anaphylactic Shock

D. Septic Shock

B. Red Man Syndrome

The shape of the dose-response curve that determines maximal efficacy and potency that determines the magnitude of effect in different concentration is:

A. Log-dose effect

B. Graded-dose effect

C. Quantal-dose effect

D. Log-dose effect

B. Graded-dose effect

Personalized or precision medicine is this branch of pharmacology which is:

A. Pharmacoepidemiology

B. Pharmacogenetics

C. Ethnopharmacology

D. Ecopharmacology

B. Pharmacogenetics

All drugs causes only a single specific effect - that is the effect of the drug in question is insignificant or erroneous is:

A. Therapeutic

B. Adverse

C. Toxic

D. Lethal

B. Adverse

Which of the following medications may cause torsades de pointes?

A. Procainamide

B. Lidocaine

C. Pregabalin

D. Flecainide

A. Procainamide

A syndrome of tinnitus, hearing loss, blurring of vision, dizziness, nausea, and vomiting is a severe adverse effect of:

A. Sotalol

B. Ibutilide

C. Quinidine

D. Digoxin

C. Quinidine

Which of the following medications purely controls heart rate of patients with atrial fibrillation?

A. Amiodarone

B. Vernakalant

C. Ibutilide

D. Digoxin

D. Digoxin

The effects of activation of the receptors resemble those of postganglionic cholinergic nerve stimulation, located primarily on autonomic effector cells, such as the heart, vascular endothelium, and smooth muscle:

A. Alpha Receptors

B. Beta Receptors

C. Muscarinic Receptors

D. Dopamine Receptors

C. Muscarinic Receptors

A subclass of adrenoreceptors, important in the renal and splanchnic vessels and in the brain:

A. Alpha Receptors

B. Beta Receptors

C. Muscarinic Receptors

D. Dopamine Receptors

D. Dopamine Receptors

Bacterial toxin that enzymatically disables release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerve endings

A. Tetrodotoxin

B. Saxitoxin

C. Botulinum Toxin

D. Hexamethonium

C. Botulinum Toxin

Hormone released from adrenal medulla, also a neurotransmitter in CNS

A. Dopamine

B. Epinephrine

C. Amphetamine

D. Metyrosine

B. Epinephrine

The most common etiology of hepatic steatosis (fatty liver) is:

A. Alcohol

B. Cholesterol

C. High protein

D. High carbohydrate

A. Alcohol

Hemochromatosis is excessive accumulation of this substance in the visceral organs:

A. Fe

B. Cu

C. I

D. Zn

A. Fe

Cholecholithiasis are stone accumulation in this organ:

A. Liver

B. Kidney

C. Gallbladder

D. Common Bile Duct

C. Gallbladder

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is peptic ulcer disease secreting this major hormone:

A. Secretin

B. Gastrin

C. Bombesin

D. Glucagon

B. Gastrin

Effect of estrogen in menopausal women leads to this complication:

A. Osteomalacia

B. Osteoporosis

C. Osteitis Cystica

D. Osteitis Deformans

B. Osteoporosis

The following produced ACD as common complications of dermatologic drug ADRs, except:

A. 5-FU

B. Crotamiton

C. Hydrocortisone

D. Malathion

C. Hydrocortisone

The following statements are true, except:

A. Epidemiologic studies suggest an increase in the cancer rate in operating room personnel who were exposed to trace concentrations of anesthetic agents

B. No study has demonstrated the existence of a causal relationship between anesthetics and cancer

C. Many other factors might account for the questionably positive results after a careful review of epidemiologic data

D. All statements are true

D. All statements are true

These primary inhalational anesthetics in clinical use are molecules known to act as greenhouse gasses, except:

A. Sevoflurane

B. Isoflurane

C. Nitrous Oxide

D. Thiopental

D. Thiopental

A premonitory sign of malignant hyperthermia:

A. Chvostek Sign

B. Ptosis

C. Trismus

D. Kernig's Sign

C. Trismus

_____, a 34- to 39- kDA glycoprotein, was the first human hematopoietic growth factor to be isolated, was originally purified from the urine of patients with severe anemia.

A. G-CSF

B. GM-CSF

C. Erythropoietin

D. Interleukin-11

C. Erythropoietin

Opioid receptor molecular MOA are the following, except:

A. Close Ca- channels

B. Open K- channels (hyperpolarization)

C. Depressed glutamate

D. Activate GABA/NMDA

D. Activate GABA/NMDA

The only SSNRI for treatment of fibromyalgia in US is:

A. Milnacipran

B. Venlafaxine

C. Duloxetine

D. Desvenlafaxine

A. Milnacipran

Bipolar disorder is an abnormality of chromosome numbers: 18, 21, 16, and 22 sabi sa google

A. 8 P/13 Q

B. 8 A/13/X

C. 8 T/13 R

D. 8 X/13 Q

A. 8 P/13 Q

Stalevo are combinations of the following drugs for parkinsonism:

A. L-DOPA

B. C-DOPA

C. Entacapone

D. All of them

D. All of them

ADR of amantadine, an antiviral drug for parkinsonism is:

A. Erythromelalgia

B. Livedo Reticularis

C. Ergotism

D. Bromism

B. Livedo Reticularis

An atypical antipsychotic with novel MAOADR, long t ½, and more potent is:

A. Clozapine

B. Risperidone

C. Aripiprazole

D. Quetiapine

C. Aripiprazole

A pure antimanic drug is:

A. Olanzapine

B. Fluoxetine

C. Quetiapine

D. Lithium

D. Lithium

HiB vaccine is given via ____.

A. Oral

B. SQ

C. ID

D. IM

D. IM

It inhibits JAK enzymes that stimulate hematopoiesis and immune cell function in response to cytokine or growth factor signaling. It reduces circulating NK cells, serum immunoglobulins, and c-reactive protein.

A. Sirolimus

B. Everolimus

C. Tofacitinib

D. Tacrolimus

C. Tofacitinib

A semisynthetic derivative isolated from the mold Penicillum glaucus, used in solid organ transplant patients as an alternative to cyclosporine who do not tolerate this drug

A. Tacrolimus

B. PSI

C. Pomalidomide

D. MMF

D. MMF

The following statements are true regarding mycobacteria, except:

A. Mycobacteria are intrinsically resistant to most antibiotics

B. Antibiotics that are most active against rapidly growing cells are relatively effective

C. Mycobacterial cells can be dormant, and thus, resistant to many drugs or killed only very slowly

D. Lipid-rich mycobacterial cell wall is impermeable to many agents

B. Antibiotics that are most active against rapidly growing cells are relatively effective

The typical adult dose of isoniazid:

A. 300 mg/day, given once daily

B. 300 mg/day, given at 150 mg twice daily

C. 600 mg/day, given once daily

D. 600 mg.day, given at 300 mg twice daily

A. 300 mg/day, given once daily

Isoniazid-induced neuropathy is due to a relative ______.

A. Vit. B3 deficiency

B. Vit. B6 deficiency

C. Vit. B9 deficiency

D. Vit. B12 deficiency

B. Vit. B6 deficiency

Approved by the FDA in 2018 for treatment of onchocerciasis in persons ≥ 12 years old, has also demonstrated activity for strongyloidiasis and trichuriasis, a macrocyclic lactone

A. Metrifonate

B. Moxidectin

C. Triclabendazole

D. Thiabendazole

B. Moxidectin

Antibiotic that has been shown to have significant macrofilaricidal activity against with bancrofti, activity also seen against onchocerciasis:

A. Tetracycline

B. Doxycycline

C. Minocycline

D. Tigecycline

B. Doxycycline

An alternative to triclabendazole for the treatment of fascioliasis and an alternative to praziquantel for the treatment of paragonimiasis:

A. Mebendazole

B. Ivermectin

C. Metrifonate

D. Bithionol

D. Bithionol

The most significant toxic reaction of amphotericin B:

A. Hepatic damage

B. Cardiotoxicity

C. Renal damage

D. Arachnoiditis with serious neurologic sequelae

C. Renal damage

It is distinguished from triazole by its greater propensity to inhibit mammalian cytochrome P450 enzyme, less selective for fungal P450

A. Ketoconazole

B. Posaconazole

C. Fluconazole

D. Isavuconazole

A. Ketoconazole

A polyene macrolide, used only topically, is active against most Candida spp. and is most commonly used for suppression of local candidal infections:

A. Griseofulvin

B. Terbinafine

C. Miconazole

D. Nystatin

D. Nystatin

A very insoluble fungistatic drug derived from a species of penicillium, only use is in the systemic treatment of dermatophytosis:

A. Terbinafine

B. Griseofulvin

C. Clotrimazole

D. Miconazole

B. Griseofulvin

Supplemental vitamin E is contraindicated in patients receiving the oral solution of this drug.

A. Ritonavir

B. Tipranavir

C. Enfuvirtide

D. Ibalizumab

B. Tipranavir

These drugs should be used in caution in patients with a history of sulfa allergy, except:

A. Darunavir

B. Tipranavir

C. Fosamprenavir

D. Lopinavir

D. Lopinavir

This oral powder drug contains phenylalanine, which can be harmful to patients with phenylketonuria. Raltegravir

A. Enfuvirtide

B. Nelfinavir

C. Saquinavir

D. Darunavir

B. Nelfinavir

A patient was rushed to the ER due to generalized weakness. He was pale and hypotensive. He had several bouts of melena and hematochezia. He is currently on dabigatran. What may be given to counter this drug?

A. Adnexanet Alpha

B. Idarucizumab

C. Vitamin K

D. Protamine Sulfate

B. Idarucizumab

What substance accumulates and contributes to blood pressure lowering effects and incessant coughing among patients given enalapril?

A. Angiotensin II

B. Bradykinin

C. Renin

D. Mevalonate

B. Bradykinin

Which of the following medications may help inhibit sympathetic overactivity of patients with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction?

A. Ramipril

B. Bisoprolol

C. Spironolactone

D. Dapagliflozin

B. Bisoprolol

_________ consists of muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, rapid onset tachycardia, and hypercapnia, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis, following exposure to one or more triggering agents. It is a rare but important cause of anesthetic morbidity and mortality.

A. Myasthenia Gravis

B. Freeman-Sheldon Syndrome

C. Malignant Hyperthermia

D. Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis

C. Malignant Hyperthermia

Hepatic dysfunction following surgery and general anesthesia is most likely caused by hypovolemic shock, infection by blood transfusion or other surgical stresses. However, a small subset of individuals previously exposed to this anesthetic developed fulminant hepatic failure, cause is unclear but studies implicate formation of reactive metabolites that cause direct hepatocellular damage or immune-mediated responses.

A. Nitrous Oxide

B. Sevoflurane

C. Desflurane

D. Halothane

D. Halothane

A phenylpiperidine derivative used to control diarrhea, has an effect on peripheral mu-opioid receptors and a lack of effect on CNS receptors. Investigations are ongoing as to its use as an effective analgesic.

A. Diphenoxylate

B. Difenoxin

C. Loperamide

D. Buprenorphine

C. Loperamide

A pure antagonist and is preferred over older weak agonist-antagonist agents that had been used primarily as antagonists, usually given by injection and has a short duration of action in the treatment of acute opioid overdose.

A. Naltrexone

B. Naloxone

C. Nalmefene

D. Naloxegol

B. Naloxone