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B
Analyze and select the basic product
formulation for a tablet.
A. Active Ingredient, Solvent, Emulsifier,
Lubricant.
B. Active Ingredient, Diluent or Filler,
Binder, Disintegrant, Lubricant
C. Active Ingredient, Solubilizing Agent,
Binder, Disintegrant, Filler
D. Active Ingredient, Diluent, Lubricant
B
Select the oral dosage form, which contains
one or more active ingredients dissolved in
a suitable base.
A. Oral Suspension
B. Oral Solution
C. Oral Emulsion
D. Oral Drops
B
Which of the following statements is correct
regarding oral solutions?
A. Prednisolone sodium phosphate is a
pharmaceutical oral emulsion
B. Oral pharmaceutical solutions are
usually formulated so that the patient
receives the usual dose in a conveniently
administered volume, such as 5 mL (1
tsp), 10 mL, or 15 mL (1 tbsp).
C. Oral solutions are conveniently
administered in volumes of 10 mL or 4
mL
D. Oral rehydration solutions are given to
patients with severe volume depletion of
20-30 percent of body weight.
D
Select the undesirable characteristic of a
dispersed phase of a suspension:
A. Dispersed phase is chemically and
physically stable
B. Chemical and physical properties do
NOT change sufficiently during storage
to adversely affect the performance of
the suspension
C. Dispersed particle are uniformly
distributed throughout the dispersion
medium
D.Enhances crystal growth formation
D
Which of the following is considered an
undesirable quality of a suspension?
A. Particle size remains fairly constant
throughout its long period of
undisturbed standing.
B. Particles that settle to the bottom do
NOT form a cake
C. The suspension is NOT too viscous
for it to be poured out freely from
its container and for it to flow freely
through a syringe needle
D. Suspended particles settle rapidly
C
Which of the following is a disadvantage
characteristic of suspension?
A. Sedimentation rate is high
B. Easily redispersed
C. Formation of a compact when the
particles eventually settle
D. Particles are tightly packed
B
Which of the following statement is true
regarding suspension?
A. Colloid mill or homogenizers are used for
dry milling purposes prior to suspension.
B. Suspensions are chemically more stable
than solutions.
C. A highly viscous suspension provides
ease of pouring.
D. Suspensions do not ensure uniformity of
dosage.
A
Select the appropriate procedure to
produce aesthetically pleasing suspension:
A. Add an amount of flocculating agent
that will bring about a sedimentation
volume equal to 1
B. Add bentonite
C. Add an amount flocculating agent that
will make sedimentation volume equal
to 0
D. Add an amount of flocculating agent
that will make sedimentation volume
equal to negative value
A
First pharmaceutical product of
recombinant DNA technology:
A. Human insulin
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Human growth hormone
D. AOTA
C
Capsule shaped compressed tablet that
allows the coated product to be about one
third smaller than a capsule filled with an
equivalent amount of powder.
A. Enteric coated tablet
B. Film coated tablet
C. Gelatin coated tablet
D. NOTA
C
Classify the medical device: Pacemaker
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. NOTA
A
SPF
A. Sun protection factor
B. Sunlight protection factor
C. A and B
D. NOTA
B
Amphoteric surfactants:
A. SLS
B. Betaine
C. Benzalkonium chloride
D. NOTA
D
Select the principal category to which ethyl
cellulose belong:
A. Disintegrant
B. Suspending Agent
C. Sweetening Agent
D. Tablet Binder
A
Classify clay, silica gel, colloids, metals,
activated charcoal, activated alumina as a
pharmaceutical excipient:
A. Adsorbent
B. Humectant
C. Preservative
D. Stiffening Agent
A
Classify glycerin, honey, glucose syrup, egg
yolk, sugar alcohols as a pharmaceutical
excipient:
A. Humectant
B. Suppository Base
C. Stiffening Agent
D. Tablet Grinder
B
The following pair are coarse dispersions
A. Suspension and solution
B. Emulsion and suspension
C. Cream and solution
D. Solutions and cream
D
Antifoaming agent:
A. Sodium Stearate
B. SLS
C. Polysorbate 20
D. Castor Oil
D
Identify the components of yellow
ointment:
A. Yellow wax, jojoba oil
B. Yellow wax, beeswax
C. Yellow wax, spermaceti
D.Yellow wax, yellow petrolatum
C
Which of the following are used as
pharmaceutical ointment bases?
I. Lanolin
II. Mineral Oil
III.Petrolatum
IV.Glycerin
A. I, II
B. II, IV
C. I, III
D. III, IV
D
Which of the following statement correctly
describe oleaginous ointment bases?
I. They include fixed oils of vegetable
origin, fats from animals and semisolid
HC obtained from petroleum
II. Vegetable oils and animal fats have
lower water-absorbing capacity
III.Vegetable oils raise the melting point of
ointments
IV.Oleaginous ointment bases are excellent
emollients
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, IV
D
Compute for the volume of alcohol to be
added to preserve the prescription below.
Rx
Active drug 5mL
Other Drug solids 3 mL
Glycerin 15 mL
Sucrose 25 g
Ethanol 95% q.s
Purified water, q.s. 100mL
A. 6.55 mL
B. 2.50 mL
C. 7.35 mL
D. 6.21 mL
D
Which of the following is correctly
matched?
A. Elixirs - Aqueous
B. Aromatic Waters - Hydroalcoholic
C. Mucilage - Alcoholic
D. Liniments - Oleaginous
D
Select the statements that best described
syrups as diluting agents:
I. Syrups are useful as diluting agents for
water soluble drugs
II. Syrups act both as solvents and flavoring
agents
III.Glycyrrhiza Syrup is an excellent vehicle
for saline substances because of its
colloidal properties, sweet flavor and
licorice taste
IV.Aromatic Eriodictyon Syrup is the
diluting agent of choice for masking
taste of urea
A. II, IV
B. II, III
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III
B
Water obtained by distillation, ion-
exchange treatment, reverse osmosis
or any other suitable process; contains
no added substance; and NOT used in
preparations intended for parenteral
administration:
A. Sterile Water for Injection
B. Purified Water
C. Water for injection
D. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection
A
Which is not an ideal characteristic of a
suppository base?
A. Remains stable in rectal fluids
B. Nontoxic and nonirritating to the
mucous membrane
C. Stable on storage
D. Compatible with a variety of drugs
C
Find the incorrect statement about
theobroma oil:
A. The beta crystal is its stable form with a
melting point approaching 35oC.
B. Requires a fusion temperature of 40-
50oC
C. It is a naturally occurring alkaloid.
D. The alpha form is metastable with a
melting point below 30oC
A
Identify cosmetics which are regulated as
a drugs:
A. Lip Balms, Mouthwashes,
Antiperspirants, Diaper Ointments
B. Skin Moisturizers, Perfumes, Nail
Polishes
C. Hair Colors, Toothpastes
D. Shampoos, Lipsticks
D
Use of potassium diformate in veterinary
medicine:
A. Anti-Acidic Agent
B. Antiparasitic
C. Sedative
D. Strong Antimicrobial
B
Select the category of emulsifiers or
stabilizers that are used primarily as
thickening agents and stabilizers for oil
in-water emulsions of certain lotions and
ointments for external use
A. Carbohydrate
B. HMW alcohols
C. Protein substances
D. NOTA
B
Method of preparing powders that consists
of enclosing the powder container, which
rotates and mixes the powder ingredients:
A. Sifting
B. Tumbling
C. Mechanical Mixing
D. Trituration
B
Preservatives interfere with microbial
growth and metabolism through
one or more of these mechanisms,
EXCEPT________:
A. Hydrolysis
B. Reversible protein precipitation
C. Lysis and cytoplasmic leakage
D. Oxidation of cellular constituents
C
Which sterilization method allows the
sterilization of packaged finished products
that are ready for shipment because
sterilizing material permeates sealed
plastic films and cartons?
A. Dry Heat
B. Ionizing Radiation
C. Gas Sterilization
D.Membrane Filtration
A
Identify the colorant not obtained from a
biological source:
A. Nitroso-Dyes
B. Alizarin
C. Chlorophyll
D. Anattenes
B
BReason why granules or coarse particles is
preferred over fine powders in effervescent
preparations.
A. Improve solubility
B. Decrease dissolution leading to a less
violent effervescence.
C. Aesthetically appealing
D. NOTA
A
Defined as the breaking of tablet edges,
while the tablet leaves the press or
during subsequent handling and coating
operations:
A. Chipping
B. Cracking
C. Picking
D. Sticking
D
Types of suppositories:
I. Urethral III. Rectal
II. Vaginal IV. Oral
A. IV only
B. I and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II and III
C
Which of the following is a suspension?
A. Normal saline solution
B. Dextrose 5% in water
C. Magaldrate
D.EMLA
B
Arrange the following steps of
sugarcoating process:
I. Color coating IV. Polishing
II. Sealing V. Subcoating
III.Smoothing
A. V-III-II-I-IV
B. II-V-III-I-IV
C. V-II-III-I-IV
D. III-V-II-I-IV
B
Select the appropriate remedy for a
capsule defect where the active ingredient
prescribed dissolves in an acid medium:
A. Seal the capsule properly.
B. Coat the capsules with polyvinyl acetate
phthalate.
C. Add magnesium stearate
D. Reduce particle size.
C
This step allows the flavor and odor of a
solution to enhance:
A. Filtration
B. Mixing
C. Aging
D. None of The Above
B
Range of sodium ion concentration in a
TPN preparation:
A. 5 - 10 mEq
B. 100 - 120 mEq
C. 40 - 60 mEq
D.8 - 16 mEq
B
Determine the effect of overwetting to
resulting granules:
A. Granules will be dry
B. Granules will be hard
C. Granules will be soft
D. Granules will be soggy
A
Sodium bisulfite
A. Antioxidant
B. Diluent
C. Solvent
D. NOTA
C
Pharmaceutical glass that is composed
of relatively high proportions of sodium
oxide and calcium oxide; has a relatively
lower concentration of migratory oxides;
considered to be of relatively good
chemicals resistance for only one use; and
suitable for solutions that are buffered and
have a pH below 7 and are not reactive
with the glass:
A. Type III
B. NP
C. Type II
D. Type I
A
This explains the erratic motion of colloid
A. Brownian motion
B. Faraday Tyndall effect
C. Zeta potential
D. NOTA
B
The following formula is used in preparing
CT Acetaminophen using wet granulation
method. Each tablet contains:
Acetaminophen ............ 300 mg
PVP......................................... 22.5 mg
Lactose................................61.75 mg
Alcohol (200 proof)........... 4.5 mL
Stearic acid........................... 9.0 mg
Talc........................................... 13.5 mg
Corn starch.......................43.25 mg
To make 10,000 tablets, calculate the
amount of PVP to be weighed (g):
A. 3000 g
B. 225 g
C. 90 g
D. 135 g
A
Tablets which have a smooth, rapid
disintegration when chewed or allowed to
dissolve in the mouth, have a creamy base,
usually of specially flavored and colored
mannitol.
A. Chewable tablet
B. Film coated tablet
C. Sublingual tablet
D. NOTA
A
Constitutive property
A. Refractive index
B. Molecular weight
C. Vapor pressure lowering
D. Osmotic pressure
D
Classify the following techniques to its
corresponding flavoring methodology: Use
of menthol to anesthetized taste buds
A. Blending
B. Overshadow
C. Physical
D. Physiological
C
Identify the forces that account for the
solubility of iodine in a solution of KI:
A. Hydrogen Bonds
B. Repulsive & Attractive Forces
C. Ion-Dipole, Ion- Induced Dipole Forces
D.Electrovalent Forces
B
Which of the following is the most stable
form of chelates?
A. 5-membered rings only
B. 5- to 6-membered rings
C. 4-membered rings only
D. 3- to 4-membered rings
A
Identify the Law/ Principles which states
that when the reaction is reversible, delta
S=0:
A. Gibbs Free Energy
B. Ideal Gas Law
C. Henry's Law
D.Faraday's Law
A
Find the classification of Complexes:
A. Metal Complexes, Organic Complexes,
Inclusion/Occlusion Compounds
B. Metal & Quinhydrone Complexes
C. Organic & Quinhydrone Complexes
D.Metal & Organic Complexes
D
Ethylenediamineteatraacetic acid is a:
A. Trindentate
B. Monodentate
C. Didentate
D. Hexadentate
D
Identify the statement/mathematical
expression, which does NOT express the
First Law of Thermodynamics:
A. States that energy is conserved
B. Forms of energy can be interconverted,
but the sum of energies remains
constant
C. ∆ E is equal to zero for a cyclic process in
a closed system.
D. ∆ E = EB + EA
A
Select the concept that explains the
thermodynamics state of a perfect crystal
at absolute zero:
A. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
C. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
D.1st, 2nd, 3rd Laws of Thermodynamics
C
The HLB system
I. Each surface-active agents is assigned
an HLB value which is indicative of the
substance's polarity
II. HLB values range from 1-40
III.Substances that are highly polar or
hydrophilic have been assigned higher
numbers
IV.In using the HLB concept in the
preparation of an emulation, one selects
emulsifying agents having higher or
lower HLB values as the oleaginous
phase of the emulsion
A. 1 statement is correct
B. 2 statements are correct
C. 3 statements are correct
D. All the statements are correct
C
Surfactants:
I. Wetting agents aids in attaining contact
between solid particles and liquids
II. Emulsifying agents reduce interfacial
tension between oil and water, resulting
in minimizing surface energy through
the formation of globules
III.Detergents reduce the surface tension
and aid in wetting the surface and the
dirt
IV.Solubilizing agents have HLB values
from 3-6
A. 1 statement is correct
B. 2 statements are correct
C. 3 statements are correct
D. All of the statements are correct
C
HLB values
I. Materials that are hydrophilic have been
assigned higher numbers than those
that are less polar and more lipophilic
II. Surface-active agents with HLB values
3-6 are greatly hydrophilic and produce
oil-in-water emulsion
III.Surface active agents with HLB 8-18
produce oil-in-water emulsions
IV.The usual range of HLB values for
surface-active agents is between 1-20
A. 1 statement is correct
B. 2 statements are correct
C. 3 statements are correct
D. All the statements are correct
C
Adsorption
I. When molecules and ion are
partitioned in favor of the interface,
the phenomenon in called positive
adsorption.
II. An example of absorption is taking up of
water by a sponge.
III.When the molecules of a liquid or gas
penetrate into the capillary spaces of
the medium, this phenomenon is called
absorption
IV.An example of absorption is when
concentration of alkaloid molecules
attaches on the surface of clay
A. 1 statement is correct
B. 2 statements are correct
C. 3 statements are correct
D. All the statements are correct
B
Select the viscometers which can be used
for both Newtonian and Non-Newtonian
system:
A. Cone and Plate, Capillary
B. Cup and Bob, Cone and Plate
C. Cone and Plate, Falling Sphere
D. Capillary, Falling Sphere3White
B
Select the Non-Newtonian liquids
A. Virgin Coconut Oil, Gold Colloid
B. Tobramycin, Chloramphenicol Palmitate
Suspension
C. Olive Oil, Chloroform
D.Ethyl Alcohol, Mayonnaise
D
Analyze and select the factor that governs
the degree of repulsion in systems
containing dispersed particles.
A. Entropy
B. Enthalpy
C. Nernst Potential
D.Electrokinetic Potential
B
A prescription requires 100 mL of a 1%
solution of apomorphine hydrochloride
(MW 312.79) that is isotonic with blood
serum. The freezing point lowering of the
drug is 0.08oC and that of 0.9 percent
sodium chloride is 0.52oC. How many
grams of sodium chloride will be added to
make 100 mL of isotonic solution?
A. 0.94 g
B. 0.76 g
C. 1.8 g
D.0.98 g
B
Calculate the approximate E value of boric
acid. (MW 61.84, Liso 1.8)
A. 0.4
B. 0.5
C. 0.8
D.0.9
C
Strongest intermolecular force
A. Ionic
B. Covalent
C. Hydrogen bond
D. London Forces
B
Select the statement that characterizes
association colloids:
A. Amphiphiles in a liquid medium of high
concentration exist as normal strong
electrolytes in solution over a wide
concentration range.
B. Micelles are aggregates of molecules or
ions of the substance dissolved in the
dispersion medium.
C. Amphiphiles in a liquid medium of low
concentration exist as aggregates.
D.Micelles are generally agglomerates of
non-electrolytes.
C
Identify the property which is used to
determine the molecular weight of
colloids:
A. Fluidity
B. Electric Properties
C. Light Scattering
D. Brownian Movement
A
Find the statement that is INCORRECT
regarding the influence of some factors on
the solubility of solids:
A. The configuration of a solid molecule
has NO effect on its solubility.
B. A symmetric arrangement in the crystal
may render a solid less soluble than a
symmetric one.
C. Solubility depends in part on the work
required to separate the particles of the
crystalline solute.
D. Solubility increases
A
Select the statement that BEST describes
solubility of solids in liquids:
A. The solubility of a solid in an ideal
solution depends on the temperature,
melting point of the solid and molar
heat of fusion.
B. Ideal solubility is affected by the nature
of the solvent.
C. In an ideal solution, the heat of fusion is
NOT equal to the heat of solution.
D. NOTA
D
Lyophilic colloids
A. Gold
B. Sulfur
C. Silver
D. Gelatin
A
The difference between the surface
tensions of the liquid/vapor and solid/vapor
and that of the solid/liquid:
A. Work Of Adhesion
B. Work Of Cohesion
C. Spreading Coefficient
D. A & B
D
Molecules and ions that are adsorbed at
interfaces are termed as:
A. Surface Active Agents
B. Surfactants
C. Amphiphile
D. AOTA
D
Defined as the difference in potential
between the actual surface and the
electroneutral region of the solution:
A. Zeta Potential
B. Electrothermodynamic Potential
C. Nernst Potential
D. B & C
C
The following are true about Brownian
movement except:
A. Random movement of colloidal particles
B. Resulted from the bombardment of
the particles by the molecules of the
dispersion medium
C. The velocity of the particles decreases
with decreasing particle size
D. NOTA
B
The following are true about viscosity of
colloidal dispersions except:
A. The shapes of particles of the disperse
phase affect the viscosity of colloidal
dispersions.
B. Spherocolloids form dispersions of
relatively high viscosity
C. The relationship of shape and viscosity
reflects the degree of solvation of the
particles
D. NOTA
A
Hypertonic solution:
A. 9%
B. 0.9%
C. 90%
D. 0.09%
A
Make the following preparation solution
isotonic:
Phenacaine hydrochloride 0.06 g
Boric acid 0.30 g
Sterilized distilled water q.s. 100.0 mL
(E for boric acid = 0.50, E for phenacaine
hydrochloride = 0.20)
A. 18 mL
B. 22 mL
C. 10 mL
D. 27 mL
A
If the surface tension of water γS is 72.8
dynes/cm at 20°C, the surface tension of
benzene, γL, is 28.9 dynes/cm, and the
interfacial tension between benzene and
water, γLS, is 35.0 dynes/cm, Following
equilibration, γS′ is 62.2 dynes/cm and γL′ is
28.8 dynes/cm. What is the final spreading
coefficient?
A. - 1.6 dynes/cm
B. + 1.6 dynes/cm
C. + 8.9 dynes/cm
D. - 8.9 dynes/cm
D
The following are true about the stability of
colloids except:
A. The presence and magnitude, or
absence, of a charge on a colloidal
particle is an important factor in the
stability of colloidal systems
B. Stabilization is accomplished essentially
by two means: providing the dispersed
particles with an electric charge, and
surrounding each particle with a
protective solvent sheath
C. A lyophobic sol is thermodynamically
unstable
D. NOTA
B
The following are true about chelates
except:
A. Chelates is a substance containing
two or more donor groups that may
combine with a metal to form special
type of complex known as chelate
B. When the ligand provides one group
for attachment to the central ion, the
chelate is called bidentate
C. Chlorophyll and hemoglobin are
naturally occurring chelates
D. NOTA
D
The following are true about organic
molecular complexes except:
A. An organic coordination compound
or molecular complex consists of
constituents held together by weak
forces of the donor-acceptor type or by
hydrogen bonds
B. The energy of attraction between the
constituents is probably less than 5 kcal/
mole for most organic complexes
C. Majority of organic complexes are so
weak that they cannot be separated
from their solutions as definite
compounds.
D. NOTA
D
The following are true about drug
complexes except:
A. Caffeine forms complexes with organic
acid anions that are more soluble than
the pure xanthine
B. Complexation between drug and
complexing agents can improve
or impair drug absorption and
bioavailability
C. The presence of sodium salicylate
significantly influenced the release of
benzocaine
D. NOTA
D
The following are true about inclusion/
occlusion compound complexes except:
A. These compounds are due to the
architecture of molecules rather than
from their chemical affinity. One of the
constituents of the complex is trapped in
the open lattice or cage-like structure of
the other to yield a stable arrangement
B. The cholic acid may form a group
of complexes principally involving
deoxycholic acid in combination with
esters, organic acids, paraffins, ketones
and aromatic compounds and with
solvents such as alcohol, ether and
dioxane.
C. Camphor has been partly resolved by
complexation
D. NOTA
D
A sample of calcium oxide powder with a
true density of 3.203 and weighing 131.3 g
was found to have a bulk volume of 82.0
cm3 when placed in a 100 mL graduated
cylinder. Calculate the porosity.
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 50%
A
Liso of non-electrolytes
A. 1.9
B. 2.0
C. 3.4
D.4.3
C
Select the statement that best describes
"Refilling of a Prescription":
A. Filling a prescription order for a second
time
B. Dispensing a repeat prescription order
dated 2 years ago
C. Dispensing the remaining balance of
medicines ordered in the prescription
D. Compounding a prescription order for
the fourth time
D
Violative prescription:
A. When the generic and brand names are
both legible
B. When the brand name is NOT enclosed
within a parenthesis
C. When the generic name is enclosed
within a parenthesis
D. Only the brand name is written on
the prescription, with the phrase, "No
substitution"
A
Agency where the pharmacist must report
the destruction of dangerous drugs?
A. PDEA
B. DDB
C. DOH
D. FDA
B
A person affixing "RPh" title on his/her
name violates the:
A. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
B. Philippine Pharmacy Act
C. Universally Accessible, Cheaper and
Quality Medicines Act
D. Generics Act of 1988
D
What are the components of the "Essential
Health Benefit Package" based on the
Universal Health Care Law:
A. Primary care, medicines, laboratory tests,
food allowance
B. Preventive, curative, rehabilitative
services
C. Diagnostic and laboratory tests
D. Primary care, medicines, diagnostic and
laboratory tests, preventive, curative,
rehabilitative services
A
Applicable S-license for the retail of DP/s
containing Table I Controlled Chemical/s:
A. S-1
B. S-2
C. S-3
D. S-4
D
Category A are: Pharmaceutical
establishments/outlets where the direct
and immediate control and supervision of
a duly registered and licensed pharmacist
is required, per establishment, whether in-
store or online, including:
A. Retail outlets selling household
remedies and OTC drugs as
differentiated from the pharmacist-only
OTC medicines
B. Institutions providing telepharmacy
services;
C. Nontraditional outlets of pharmaceutical
products: Provided, That no prescription
medicines and pharmacist-only OTC
medicines are sold.
D. NOTA
A
Magna Carta for Disabled Persons
A. RA 7277
B. RA 9165
C. RA 9502
D. RA 9994
A
Legal basis of Immunizing Pharmacist
Certification
A. Professional Regulatory Board of
Pharmacy Resolution No. 05 series of
2021
B. Professional Regulatory Board of
Pharmacy Resolution No. 05 series of
2017
C. Professional Regulatory Board of
Pharmacy Resolution No. 05 series of
2020
D. Professional Regulatory Board of
Pharmacy Resolution No. 05 series of
2016
B
Which of the following statement is
correct regarding the oversight role and
functions of pharmacists in Category B
establishments:
I. The supervising pharmacist must be
physically present in the establishment/
outlet for a minimum of two (2) hours a
week
II. The location of each establishment/
outlet which the pharmacist supervises
must be within the same provincial LGU
within each region. In the case of NCR, it
shall be considered as a single unit
III.The distance between the two farthest
establishments/outlets supervised by a
single pharmacist must not exceed fifty
(50) km in distance
IV.A pharmacist shall be allowed to
supervise a minimum of fifteen (15)
establishment/outlets
A. I
B. I, II
C. II, III
D. III, IV
A
A pharmacist working in Category A
establishment/outlet may be allowed
to simultaneously work in Category B
establishment/outlet.
A. True
B. False
C. A & B
D. NOTA
C
Identify the law violated when Pharmacy X
was found selling counterfeit medicines:
A. RA 9502
B. RA 6675
C. RA 8203
D. RA 9944
A
In RA 11223, population-based health
services shall be financed by:
A. Department of Health
B. Social Health Insurance
C. Private Health Insurance
D. AOTA