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1. What form of pneumonia is most often bacterial in nature?
a) Broncho-pneumonia
b) Lobar pneumonia
c) Interstitial Cell pneumonia
d) All of the above have equal likelihood of being bacterial
A
2. Once pneumonia has set in, why are we dependent on IgG for recovery?
a) Coats mucus membranes well
b) Has the most binding sights to pick up bacteria
c) Most produced antibody in the body during infection
d) Small size and designed to deal with a current infection
e) We don't actually rely on IgG for the lungs we rely on IgA
D
3. Walking pneumonia is a term typically used to describe?
a) Broncho-pneumonia
b) Lobar pneumonia
c) Interstitial Cell pneumonia
d) Any mild case of pneumonia
C
4. All viruses that cause the common cold can be found in one of the following three viral families; Rhinoviruses, Coronaviruses, and adenoviruses.
a) True
b) False
B
5. The common cold is limited to the upper respiratory region, because?
a) ICAM markers
b) IgA function
c) Temperature restrictions
d) Viral mobility
e) All of the above
C
6. The only immunity possible with the common cold or flu is strain specific immunity.
a) True
b) False
B
7. Symptoms such as sinus pressure and scratchy throat during the common cold are a result of direct cell death from viral infection.
a) True
b) False
B
8. H and N spikes are found only on?
a) Influenza A
b) Influenza B
c) Influenza C
d) All of the above
A
9. What viral strain of influenza is the least likely to trigger an epidemic or pandemic?
a) Influenza A
b) Influenza B
c) Influenza C
d) All of the above have equal chance
C
10. What viral strain of influenza is most associated with transfer between animals and humans?
a) Influenza A
b) Influenza B
c) Influenza C
d) All of the above
A
11. An influenza group capable of antigenic shift would be capable of triggering both epidemics and pandemics.
a) True
b) False
A
12. Influenza belongs to what viral family?
a) Rhinovirus
b) Morbillivirus
c) Paramyxovirus
d) Orthomyxovirus
D
13. Patient presents with a fever of 102 F, non-productive cough, severe aches and pains, sore throat, fatigue and sneezing. They most likely have?
a) Common Cold
b) Influenza
c) Strep. throat
d) Legionnaires Disease
B
14. T-cell activity is important to resolve influenza infection, but not the common cold. Why?
a) Multiple viral families for the common cold but only one for influenza
b) Common cold is too high in the respiratory tract
c) Influenza being enveloped does not kill cells as quickly, turning them into viral factories
d) Influenza flags infected cells, while cold viruses don't
B
15. Guillian-Barre syndrome is a result of direct viral infection of the nerves in the PNS.
a) True
b) False
B
16. What bacterium serves as the most common infection to precede Guillain-Barre syndrome?
a) Influenza
b) Strep.
c) Staph.
d) Campylobacter
e) Mycoplasma
D
17. What percent of people carry Staph. aureus as natural flora in the nasal cavity?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
C
18. Both Staph. and Strep. can trigger pneumonia.
a) True
b) False
A
19. What virulence factor on Staph aureus is capable of binding and inactivating IgG?
a) Protein A
b) Clumping Factor
c) Fibronectin-binding protein
d) Coagulase
A
20. Scalded skin syndrome is most associated with?
a) Strep.
b) Staph.
c) Neisseria
d) Klebsiella
B
21. Which of the following is true of osteomyelitis in children?
a) It is typically gained through trauma
b) It is slow to onset
c) It is 90% detectable by a blood test
d) It is most often seen in the long bones
e) All of the above
D
22. Brodie abscess is associated with?
a) Spots in the back of the throat with Strep throat
b) Skin abscess with staph aureus
c) Radiographic image associated with osteomyelitis
d) Blistering at the top of the lungs during Staph. based pneumonia
C
23. Which of the following Strep. is bacitracin sensitive?
a) Strep. pneumoniae
b) Strep. viridans
c) Strep. pyogenes
d) Strep agalactiae
C
24. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only known cause of TB.
a) True
B) False
B
25. Which of the following is true of group A streptococcus?
a) Only know reservoir is humanity
b) It is beta hemolytic
c) It contains Strep pyogenes as a member
d) It is spread by respiratory droplet or direct contact
e) all of the above
E
26. All of the following are true of Non-suppurative infections, except?
a) No pus production
b) Immediate onset
c) Immune mediated
d) Includes cases such as Rheumatic Fever
e) All of the above
B
27. Which of the following is caused by a specialized strain of Strep pyogenes that carries an erythrogenic toxin?
a) Rheumatic Fever
b) Scarlett Fever
c) Impetigo
d) Glomerulonephritis
e) All of the above
B
28. Two factors make Strep. pyogenes highly antiphagocytic, they are the capsule and
a) Streptokinase
b) Hyaluronidase
c) M protein
d) Leukocidin
C
29. The capsule on Strep pyogenes carries no antigenic markers to trigger either antibody or macrophage attachment.
a) True
b) False
A
30. Strep. pneumoniae infections are restricted to the respiratory tract and the middle ear only.
a) True
b) false
B
31. It is possible to carry both Strep. pyogenes and Strep. pneumoniae as natural or transient flora without becoming ill.
A) True
b) False
A
32. In what stage of Lobar Pneumoniae do RBCs lyse?
a) Congestion (Early)
b) Red hapatization
c) Gray hapatization
d) Resolution
C
33. The only virulence factor possessed by Strep. pneumoniae is its capsule.
a) True
b) False
A
34. All of the following are typically carried as natural flora, except?
a) Staph. aureus
b) Neisseria meningitidis
c) Strep. pyogenes
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
e) Legionella pneumophila
E
35. Otitis media can only be triggered by a bacterial infection.
a) True
b) False
B
36. Patient presents with no fever, fatigue, vomiting, cold hands and feet, chills, severe aches and a petechial skin rash. He most likely has?
a) Influenza
b) Impetigo and glomerulonephritis
c) Meningococcemia
d) Legionnaires' disease
C
37. Meningococcal meningitis has a less than 50% survival rate without treatment if an infection is established.
a) True
b) False
A
38. Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome typically triggers failure of the
a) Kidneys
b) Heart
c) Adrenals
d) Liver
e) Spleen
C
39. Which of the following is never spread through the air to establish infection?
a) Staph. aureus
b) Neisseria meningitidis
c) Strep. Pyogenes
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
e) Legionella pneumophila
D
40. Legionella can be found in both soil and water.
a) True
b) False
A
41. All of the following are true of Legionella, except?
a) Produces a endotoxin
b) Capable of living in macrophages
c) Motile
d) Possess capsule
e) All of the above are true
D
42. Unless you belong to a high risk category, the most you can contract from exposure to legionella is cold or flu like symptoms.
a) True
b) False
A
43. Most fungal infections enter the body by?
a) Direct contact between people
b) Respiratory portal
c) Fecal Oral
d) Wound with soil
B
44. The majority of fungal based respiratory infections are from dimorphics.
a) True
b) false
A
45. Which of the following are associated with bird droppings?
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Histoplasma capsulatum
c) Coccidiodies immitis
d) A and B
e) All of the above
D
46. Mycobacteria have a unique cell wall because?
a) It is non-antigenic
b) It allows for better adhesion
c) It has a waxy outer component
d) It is abnormally thick when compared to other cell walls
C
47. Most active cases of TB are from primary exposures.
a) True
b) False
B
48. All of the following are typically true of Latent TB infections, except?
a) Skin Test is negative
b) Chest X-ray is normal
c) Patient does not feel sick
d) Patient cannot spread the infection
e) All of the above are true
A
49. HIV and AIDs patients are at a greater risk for TB than others, because?
a) Ability of TB to live inside macrophages
b) Most cases of TB start as latent infections
c) To fight TB T-cells must convert macrophages
d) The overall slow development and progression the infection
e) All of the above
C