NHA PHARMACY CERTIFICATION

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Last updated 5:02 AM on 2/4/25
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150 Terms

1
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What is the abbreviation for capsule?

cap

2
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What does the abbreviation ID (route of administration) stand for?

Intradermally

3
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What is the abbreviation for suppository?

sup

4
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What two schedules have high potentials for abuse?

Schedule I and II

5
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What schedule consists of illegal drugs?

Schedule I

6
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What two schedules can be refilled over the phone?

Schedule IV and V

7
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What is a contraindication?

A symptom or condition that makes a particular treatment or medication inadvisable or even dangerous.

8
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What is an example of an adverse reaction?

An allergic reaction.

9
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What is the most common contraindication?

Hypersensitivity.

10
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How many mL is in a teaspoon?

5 mL

11
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How many fluid ounces (oz) are in 30 mL?

1 oz.

12
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What does the abbreviation BSA stand for?

Body Surface Area.

13
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What route of administration should you take for capsules?

Oral.

14
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What form of medication can be taken through inhalation?

Aerosols.

15
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Is it mandatory to check the medication label against the prescription to avoid making potentially serious medication errors?

Yes, it is mandatory.

16
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What is a strategy you can use to help avoid errors in handling medications?

Do not use abbreviations for medication names.

17
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What are the names of the two categories that most common routes fall into?

Enteral (through the gastrointestinal tract) and Parenteral (outside the gastrointestinal tract).

18
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Can CCMAs administer an epidural?

No.

19
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What are some routes of administration that are enteral?

Buccal, oral, and sublingual.

20
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What is pharmacokinetics?

Pharmacokinetics is the study of how medications move through the body.

21
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What happens to medication in the absorption process?

The medication is converted into a form the body can use and moves it into the bloodstream.

22
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What is the primary organ of metabolism?

Liver.

23
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What are the two most common verification (verifying patients) methods?

Asking patients for their full name and date of birth.

24
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How many times should you check medication labels?

3 times.

25
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If a patient refuses any prescribed medication or treatment, what right does it fall under?

The right to refuse.

26
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What is the abbreviation for Physicians' Desk Reference?

PDR.

27
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What are PDRs used for?

To access reliable, medically approved references they can refer to easily to find information regarding medications.

28
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What is used to prevent medication errors for look alike sound alike med?

Tall Man Lettering.

29
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Which medication requires refrigeration for return to the warehouse?

Latanoprost (Xalatan).

30
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Which volume is equivalent to 45 mL?

One tbsp = 15 mL; therefore, 3 tbsp = 45 mL.

31
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Which health care professionals can prescribe a medication for a child's toothache?

DDS (Doctor of Dental Surgery).

32
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What storage condition should be indicated for a patient taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) sublingual tablets?

Nitroglycerin should be stored in the original airtight container (helps med retain potency).

33
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Which medication should a pharmacy tech stock in an automated machine?

Metformin (Glucophage).

34
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What does medication therapy management involve?

Identifying a potential service or group of services that can optimize outcomes for a patient.

35
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What component of a prescription may indicate it might be forged?

Written in blue ink (standard is black).

36
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What is the brand name for alendronate?

Fosamax.

37
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What is a method to minimize incompatibilities of compounded solutions?

Limit the number of drugs added to the solution.

38
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Which resource determines the therapeutic equivalence of a brand and generic medication?

Orange Book.

39
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What term indicates the percentage of the cost of a prescription that must be paid by the patient?

Coinsurance.

40
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How many mL of acyclovir are needed to compound a 280 mg bag with a stock vial of 500mg/10mL?

5.6 mL.

41
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What information determines the beyond use date (BUD) of a compounded sterile product?

Stability of a medication.

42
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What medication is hazardous and requires special handling?

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin).

43
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Which abbreviation is known to be error prone on the ISMP list?

QOD (every other day).

44
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What information is required on labels for compounded sterile products?

Beyond use date.

45
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If a prescription states dispense as written, what DAW code should be entered?

DAW 1.

46
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Which auxiliary label should be placed on a prescription for amoxicillin suspension (Amoxil)?

Shake well before use.

47
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What method reduces the particle size of a solid with a solvent?

Pulverization.

48
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What is the purpose of a black box warning on a medication label?

To indicate that the medication carries a risk for life-threatening adverse effects.

49
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If a pharmacy tech receives an emergency prescription by phone for a schedule II medication, when must the written prescription be issued?

Within 7 days.

50
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What is a basic element of a prescription?

The prescribers address.

51
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What action should a pharmacy tech take if a patient can't afford medication?

Notify the pharmacist to set up a counseling session with the patient.

52
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Where can a pharmacy tech find how much diluent to use in compounding?

Product package insert.

53
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What is the max daily dose recommended for acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

4000 mg.

54
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How many tablets are equivalent to dispense LX?

60 (L=50 X=10).

55
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What schedule of controlled substances requires the exact quantity to be reported?

Schedule II.

56
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What task can a pharmacy tech legally perform?

Fill a unit dose cart.

57
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What is the primary goal of the Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program?

To inform patients of the risks associated with a medication.

58
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What should a pharmacy tech do with a discontinued medication from a patient?

Set it aside in a secure location to await disposal.

59
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What is an adverse effect of taking methylphenidate (Ritalin)?

Weight loss.

60
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What is a security requirement for no controlled Medicaid prescriptions?

Written on a tamper-resistant pad.

61
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Which medication is in the class of cyclooxygenase 2 inhibitor (COX-2 inhibitor)?

Celecoxib (Celebrex).

62
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What substance is classified as a schedule II medication according to federal law?

Cocaine.

63
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How many months before expiration should medications be marked?

6 months.

64
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How often should techs inspect the floor stock medications?

Daily.

65
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What is the maximum length of time a repackaged medication is valid?

12 months.

66
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What item should be included with a prescription to inform how to safely use a medication?

Medication guide.

67
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What is a requirement regarding patients' acknowledgment signatures according to HIPAA?

They must be maintained separately from the patient's consultation log.

68
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What organization should medication errors be reported to?

MERP (Medication Error Reporting Program).

69
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What is a valid DEA number for a prescriber named Dr. Jane Smith?

BS2135641.

70
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What set of numbers in the NDC code represents the medication's active ingredients and dosage form?

The middle 4 numbers.

71
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Which measurement system should be used when labeling insulin?

International unit system.

72
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What action should a tech take for quality assurance when compounding IV prescriptions?

Use a bar code verification system.

73
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What does ii gtts ad tid UD mean?

Instill two drops in the right ear three times per day as directed.

74
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According to the combat meth act, what is the max amount of pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) a patient can obtain in a day?

3.6 g.

75
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What is the min age the CDC recommends for a seasonal flu vaccine?

6 months.

76
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What type of medication is used to relieve coughing?

Antitussive.

77
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According to USP

Anteroom.

78
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What part of Medicare should a tech bill for a patient's blood glucose test strips?

Medicare Part B.

79
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What factors should a tech be mindful of when a patient is prescribed a new medication?

Drug-to-drug interaction.

80
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What does PAR represent in inventory control?

Periodic automatic replenishment.

81
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What is an example of look-alike sound-alike medications?

Prednisone and prednisolone.

82
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What category does a compound starting with a non-sterile product fall under?

High risk.

83
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What should a tech do if a prescription doesn't indicate any refills?

Enter no refills.

84
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What features must two therapeutic equivalent medications share?

A-rated pharmaceutical equivalents.

85
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What does the FDA require to prove that a generic medication is equivalent?

Bioavailability.

86
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What type of active listening involves asking clarifying questions?

Evaluating.

87
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Which medication is used for an acute asthma attack?

Proventil (Albuterol).

88
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What should a tech do in case of accidental chemotherapy medication administration via wrong route?

Notify the facilities medication safety committee.

89
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What concentration label should be placed on an ointment containing 125 mg of erythromycin sulfate in 40 g?

.3125%.

90
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Which medication is exempt from child-resistant packaging?

SL nitroglycerin (Nitrostat).

91
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What condition does pravastatin (Pravachol) treat?

Hyperlipidemia.

92
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Which medication must be included on a health care facility crash cart?

Epinephrine (Adrenalin).

93
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Which medication is available to patients over-the-counter?

Minoxidil (Rogaine).

94
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What must federal law include on a prescription label?

The prescription's expiration date.

95
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Which medication reduces cholesterol?

Atorvastatin (Lipitor).

96
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According to OSHA, where should contaminated sharps be discarded?

Red biohazard container.

97
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What information is required on prescriptions for controlled substances?

DEA number.

98
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What does enteric coating on a tablet indicate?

The tablet will dissolve in the intestines.

99
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What information should a tech expect when scanning a bar code on a medication bottle?

Dosage form.

100
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Which environment should be used to compound sterile IV preparations?

ISO 5.