Blood banking

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Last updated 10:37 PM on 7/18/26
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25 Terms

1
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A patient's cells react 4+ with Anti-A and 0 with Anti-B. The serum reacts 1+ with A cells and 4+ with B cells. What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?

Subgroup of A

2
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Which antibody systems show dosage?

Rh, Kidd, Duffy, MNS

3
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A patient experiences hypotension, fever, and bilateral pulmonary edema shortly after transfusion. The donor unit contains HLA antibodies. What is the diagnosis?

TRALI

4
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Treating reagent red cells with proteolytic enzymes like ficin or papain will enhance the reactivity of which antibody?

Anti-Rh

5
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A patient with a history of severe febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions should receive which type of blood component?

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

6
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A patient's serum reacts with all screening cells at room temperature (IS), but the autocontrol is negative. What is the most likely cause?

Cold alloantibody (anti-Le^a or anti-P1)

7
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What is the primary mechanism of action of Rh Immune Globulin (RhIg)?

Clearing of foetal D+ cells

8
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A patient with a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR) likely exhibits which laboratory finding?

Positive DAT with anti-IgG

9
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A donor unit is labeled 'CMV Negative'. This unit is most indicated for which patient group?

Low birth weight infants

10
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Which of the following is an effect of proteolytic enzymes on the Duffy blood group system?

Antigens are destroyed

11
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What is the clinical significance of a low-titer, cold-reactive antibody identified as Anti-I?

Generally clinically insignificant

12
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When performing a crossmatch, what is the primary purpose of the 'Immediate Spin' phase?

Detection of ABO incompatibility

13
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Which structural feature is unique to both pentameric $IgM$ and dimeric $IgA$ that allows for their polymerization?

J-Chain

14
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A technologist observes 'mixed-field' agglutination during ABO forward grouping. Which condition is the most likely cause?

Subgroup A3

15
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To prevent Transfusion-Associated Graft-vs-Host Disease (TA-GVHD), which modification must be performed on blood components?

Gamma irradiation

16
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An antibody panel shows reactions that are destroyed by treatment with Ficin. Which of the following antibodies is likely present?

Duffy or MNS

17
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Which blood group system is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) due to titers that drop below detectable levels?

Kidd

18
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Kleihauer-Betke test calculation part 1:

Foetal RBC % = (faetal cells/ total red cells) x 100

19
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Kleihauer-Betke test calculation part 2:

Foetal blood volume = Foetal RBC % x 50

20
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Kleihauer-Betke test calculation part 3:

Number of vials = (foetal blood volume / 30) round + 1

21
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A patient with no history of transfusion or pregnancy has a positive antibody screen. The panel shows a pattern consistent with anti-Le^a. What is the clinical significance of this antibody for crossmatching?

clinically insignificant

22
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What is the primary purpose of adding 'check cells' (Coombs Control Cells) to all negative antiglobulin tests?

To confirm AHG was added and active

23
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Which condition is characterized by a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) with a 'broad-spectrum' AHG but a negative antibody screen?

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anemia

24
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Which reagent is used to distinguish between $IgM$ and $IgG$ antibodies by cleaving the disulfide bonds of the $IgM$ pentamer?

DDT

25
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A patient has a suspected $anti-I$. Which technique is best used to determine if there are underlying clinically significant alloantibodies?

Pre-warmed technique