Neuroscience Lecture Series – Learning, Memory, Motivation & Motor Systems

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100 question-and-answer flashcards summarizing major topics from the neurobiology lecture series, including memory, learning mechanisms, motivation, depression, attention, motor systems, and related model organisms.

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1
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What is the neuroscientific definition of learning?

The acquisition of new skills, information, or knowledge.

2
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What is memory in neuroscience?

The ability to store learned information and recall it later.

3
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What does Miller’s ‘magical number’ 7 ± 2 describe?

The average number of items (chunks) that can be held in human short-term/working memory.

4
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What is priming?

An unconscious memory effect where prior exposure to a stimulus speeds or eases later responses to related stimuli.

5
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Define prosopagnosia.

A neurological condition characterized by the inability to recognize faces.

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What is habit formation?

The process by which repeated behaviors become automatic or routine, triggered by specific cues.

7
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Which brief memory store holds unfiltered sensory information for fractions of a second?

The sensory register (iconic for vision, echoic for audition). It retains sensory information just long enough for initial processing before it's either discarded or sent to short-term memory.

8
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How long does unattended information typically last in short-term memory?

About 20 seconds unless rehearsed or encoded.

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What technique can expand working-memory capacity?

Chunking—grouping items into meaningful units.

10
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Which two major divisions make up long-term memory?

Implicit (non-declarative) and declarative (explicit) memory.

11
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Give two examples of implicit memory types.

Procedural (motor skills) and classical conditioning (associative memory).

12
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What are episodic memories?

Declarative memories for personal events with contextual details of time and place.

13
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What are semantic memories?

Declarative memories for facts and general world knowledge.

14
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Differentiate retrograde from anterograde amnesia.

Retrograde: loss of memories before trauma; Anterograde: inability to form new memories after trauma.

15
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State Hebb’s rule in one sentence.

‘Neurons that fire together, wire together.’

16
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According to Hebb, why doesn’t partial damage erase an entire memory?

Because the memory (engram) is distributed across many synapses in a neuronal assembly.

17
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What are ‘grandmother neurons’?

Hypothetical neurons that respond only to a very specific complex stimulus, such as the concept of one’s grandmother.

18
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List three key roles of the hippocampus in declarative memory.

Encoding of new memories, consolidation into long-term storage, and retrieval of recent memories.

19
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What are place cells?

Hippocampal neurons that fire when an animal is in or thinking of a specific location.

20
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Name the brain circuit linking hippocampus, mammillary bodies, anterior thalamus and cingulate cortex.

The Papez circuit.

21
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Which brain structure is essential for fear conditioning?

The amygdala.

22
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What learning function is the striatum best known for?

Procedural learning and habit formation via reinforcement.

23
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Define habituation.

A decrease in response to a repeated, harmless stimulus.

24
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Define sensitization.

An increased response to a stimulus following a strong or noxious stimulus.

25
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Which sea slug is a classic model for studying habituation and sensitization?

Aplysia.

26
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In Aplysia sensitization, which neurotransmitter released by an interneuron triggers cAMP production?

Serotonin.

27
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What is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in Pavlov’s original experiment?

The bell tone predicting food.

28
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Which Drosophila brain region is critical for olfactory associative memory?

The mushroom bodies (Kenyon cells).

29
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Which enzyme in Kenyon cells detects coincidence of odor (Ca²⁺ influx) and shock (dopamine)?

A dually regulated adenylyl cyclase (encoded by rutabaga).

30
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What cellular change characterizes hippocampal long-term potentiation (LTP)?

A long-lasting increase in synaptic strength following high-frequency stimulation.

31
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Which receptor acts as a coincidence detector during LTP?

The NMDA receptor (requires glutamate binding and postsynaptic depolarization).

32
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Name two postsynaptic consequences of Ca²⁺ influx during LTP.

Insertion of additional AMPA receptors and gene expression changes for long-term maintenance.

33
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Which gaseous messenger can strengthen presynaptic release during LTP?

Nitric oxide (NO).

34
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What type of plasticity weakens parallel-fiber inputs onto Purkinje cells in the cerebellum?

Long-term depression (LTD).

35
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State the three conditions required for cerebellar LTD.

Glutamate at AMPA-R, glutamate at mGluR1, and climbing-fiber-induced Ca²⁺ influx.

36
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What does the BCM theory propose?

Whether a synapse undergoes LTP or LTD depends on the level of postsynaptic activity relative to a shifting threshold.

37
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Which transcription factor pair regulates gene expression for long-term memory via cAMP/PKA?

CREB-1 (activator) and CREB-2 (repressor).

38
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What genetic tool allows targeted gene expression in Drosophila neurons?

The GAL4-UAS system.

39
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How does the Split-GAL4 system improve specificity?

GAL4’s DNA-binding and activation domains are expressed under separate promoters and reassemble only in cells expressing both.

40
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What is path integration in Drosophila’s ellipsoid body used for?

Idiothetic (self-motion) orientation and operant learning of heat avoidance.

41
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Which gaseous transmitter provides ultra-short visual working memory in the ellipsoid body?

Nitric oxide (NO).

42
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Where is life-long ‘body-size memory’ stored in the fly brain?

The protocerebral bridge.

43
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Name four temporally distinct memory phases identified in Drosophila.

Short-term (STM), middle-term (MTM/ITM), anesthesia-resistant (ARM), and long-term memory (LTM).

44
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Define motivated behavior.

Volitional actions performed to satisfy an internal need under environmental opportunity.

45
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Which hypothalamic peptide hormone signals sufficient fat stores and suppresses feeding?

Leptin.

46
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Name two orexigenic peptides released when leptin is low.

Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti-related peptide (AgRP).

47
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What gut hormone is released by an empty stomach to stimulate hunger?

Ghrelin.

48
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Describe the monoamine hypothesis of depression.

Depression results from deficient activity of monoamine neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine).

49
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What axis becomes overactive in depression, leading to excess cortisol?

The hypothalamus–pituitary–adrenal (HPA) axis.

50
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What is the diathesis-stress hypothesis?

Mental disorders arise when genetic/biological vulnerability interacts with significant life stress.

51
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How can ketamine exert rapid antidepressant effects?

By blocking presynaptic NMDA receptors, boosting glutamate release, activating AMPA receptors, and triggering BDNF-mTOR–mediated synaptogenesis.

52
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What is learned helplessness?

A state where repeated uncontrollable stress leads to passive behavior and depression-like symptoms.

53
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Which three neurotransmitters modulate depression-like states in flies?

Serotonin, dopamine, and GABA.

54
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What is selective attention?

The cognitive process of focusing on specific stimuli while ignoring others.

55
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Which brain imaging method measures blood oxygenation differences (BOLD signals)?

Functional MRI (fMRI).

56
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What visual phenomenon reveals competition for conscious perception between eyes?

Binocular rivalry.

57
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Which right-hemisphere parietal lesion can cause hemispatial neglect?

Damage to the posterior parietal cortex (pPC).

58
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What are mirror neurons?

Neurons that fire both when an individual performs an action and when they observe the same action performed by others.

59
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Which human brain areas contain mirror-neuron-like activity?

Inferior frontal gyrus, ventral premotor cortex, and inferior parietal lobule.

60
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How is autism linked to the mirror-neuron hypothesis?

Reduced mirror-neuron system activity may contribute to social and empathy deficits, though the theory is debated.

61
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What non-invasive technique uses magnetic pulses to modulate cortical activity?

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS).

62
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What cortical map represents body parts in order across the motor cortex?

The somatotopic motor homunculus on the pre-central gyrus.

63
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Which tract conveys voluntary motor commands from cortex to spinal cord in primates?

The corticospinal (pyramidal) tract.

64
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Define a motor unit.

One α-motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates.

65
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What is Henneman’s size principle?

Motor units are recruited from smallest (fatigue-resistant) to largest (powerful) as force demand increases.

66
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Which spinal sensory receptors detect muscle length and its rate of change?

Muscle spindles (via Ia afferents).

67
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What is the inverse myotatic (Golgi tendon) reflex?

Ib afferents from tendon organs inhibit the same muscle when tension is excessive, protecting against damage.

68
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What are central pattern generators (CPGs)?

Spinal or brainstem circuits that produce rhythmic motor patterns (e.g., walking) without sensory input.

69
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Which midbrain region can initiate locomotion when electrically stimulated?

The mesencephalic locomotor region (MLR).

70
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What giant brainstem neuron triggers the fish ‘C-start’ escape reflex?

The Mauthner cell.

71
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Name the three main cortical motor areas anterior to primary motor cortex.

Premotor cortex, supplementary motor area (SMA), and frontal eye field.

72
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What effect does decortication have on movement?

Basic posture and reflexes remain, but voluntary fine control, especially finger movements, is lost.

73
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Define cortical plasticity.

The capacity of cortical maps and synapses to reorganize with learning, experience, or injury.

74
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What is action-activated focal dystonia?

Task-specific involuntary muscle contractions (e.g., musician’s cramp) due to maladaptive cortical plasticity.

75
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Which three deep cerebellar nuclei are collectively called the ‘interposed nuclei’?

Globose and emboliform nuclei (sometimes grouped together).

76
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What are the two major excitatory inputs to Purkinje cells?

Parallel fibers (from granule cells) and climbing fibers (from the inferior olive).

77
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During cerebellar LTD, which kinase phosphorylates AMPA receptors for internalization?

Protein kinase C (PKC).

78
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State one non-motor cognitive role of the cerebellum.

Contribution to language, working memory, or executive function via the cerebrocerebellum.

79
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Differentiate the direct and indirect basal ganglia pathways.

Direct pathway facilitates movement; indirect pathway inhibits movement.

80
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Which neurotransmitter from substantia nigra modulates both pathways?

Dopamine—excites direct (D1) and inhibits indirect (D2) pathway neurons.

81
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List two cardinal motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

Bradykinesia and resting tremor (others: rigidity, postural instability).

82
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How does L-DOPA help Parkinson’s patients?

It is a dopamine precursor that crosses the blood–brain barrier and is converted to dopamine in surviving neurons.

83
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What genetic mutation causes Huntington’s disease?

Expanded CAG trinucleotide repeats in the HTT gene producing mutant huntingtin protein.

84
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What involuntary movement characterizes Huntington’s disease?

Chorea—dance-like, writhing movements.

85
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Name two common treatments for major depression besides SSRIs.

Lithium (esp. bipolar disorder) and electroconvulsive therapy (ECT); others include ketamine or psychotherapy.

86
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What is a genome-wide association study (GWAS)?

A research approach that scans the genome for SNPs associated with a trait or disease across many individuals.

87
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How does proline in the gut–brain axis potentially influence mood?

High dietary/ microbial proline may reduce GABA synthesis, disrupt rich-club brain networks, and promote depression-like states.

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What is the main function of the pulvinar nucleus in attention?

Filtering visual input and enhancing relevant signals during selective attention.

89
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Which neuron in the Drosophila mushroom body provides wide-field GABAergic inhibition for sparse coding?

The Anterior Paired Lateral (APL) neuron.

90
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What EEG wave pattern is typical of deep non-REM sleep?

Delta waves (< 4 Hz).

91
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Describe REM sleep in two features.

Rapid eye movements with desynchronized (beta-like) EEG and skeletal muscle atonia.

92
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What spinal interneuron provides recurrent inhibition of α-motor neurons?

The Renshaw cell.

93
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Which mechanistic model explains glucose transporter conformational change?

The rocker-switch model.

94
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In PET imaging, what tracer is commonly used to assess brain glucose metabolism?

18F-fluorodeoxyglucose (18F-FDG).

95
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What phenomenon shows that perception alternates between two possible interpretations of the same stimulus?

Ambiguous figures (e.g., Necker cube or Rubin’s vase).

96
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What is selective hearing (cocktail-party effect)?

The ability to attend to one sound source while filtering out background noise.

97
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Which neurodevelopmental disorder involves inattention, hyperactivity, and dopaminergic dysfunction?

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

98
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Define theory of mind.

The capacity to attribute mental states to oneself and others, understanding that they can differ from one’s own.

99
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Which glial cell type guides Purkinje cell development and supports cerebellar synapses?

Bergmann glia.