SAD final

5.0(1)
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/255

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

256 Terms

1
New cards
Passive immunity
when antibodies are formed in one animal and transferred to another animal that is not infected. This transfer provides the uninfected animal with protection against the pathogen.
2
New cards
Inherited immunity
The is a result of genetic factors that influence the developing animals before birth
3
New cards
acquired immunity
is a resistance that develops after an animal is born
4
New cards
artificial immunity
usually due to deliberate exposure with vaccinations
5
New cards
immunity
is understood as a defense against or resistance to, contagious diseases
6
New cards
species resistance
refers to the genetic ability of a particular species to provide defense against certain pathogens
7
New cards
interferon
is a substance that interferes with that ability of viruses to cause disease by preventing their replication within the host cell
8
New cards
complement
binds to the invading cell, makes small holes in the cell membranes, and causes the cell to rupture
9
New cards
macrophage
will attach to foreign substances and take it to the T-cell
10
New cards
b-cell lymphocytes
mediate the production of antibodies in response to an antigen
11
New cards
heat, redness, swelling, and pain
What are the 4 characteristic signs of inflammation?
12
New cards
kill the pathogens, remove the tissue debris, and repair the damaged tissue
What are the goals of inflammation?
13
New cards
humoral immunity
B-cell lymphocytes are associated with....
14
New cards
reticulocyte count or evaluate blood smear for polychromasia
What are 2 ways to determine if an anemia is regenerative or non-regenerative?
15
New cards
blood smear
what is the best way to test for blood borne parasites
16
New cards
regenerative anemia
a high reticulocyte count indicates.....
17
New cards
Non-regenerative anemia
a low reticulocyte count indicates......
18
New cards
iron deficiency anemia
An 8 week old puppy is brought in for lethargy and not eating well. On physical exam you note that its gums are pale, and on the fecal exam you see a large number of hookworms. Your CBC confirms your suspicions of anemia. Based on your knowledge of anemias, which type is most likely affecting this puppy?
19
New cards
inadequate production of erythropoietin by the kidneys leads to bone marrow failure
What is the cause for anemia of Chronic Kidney Disease?
20
New cards
onion toxicity
What is the most common cause of Heinz Body Anemia in the dog?
21
New cards
Aceteminophen toxicity
can lead to Heinz body anemia
22
New cards
True
T/F: Due to the structures of their hemoglobin, cats are more susceptible to Heinz Body Anemia than dogs.
23
New cards
primary (idiopathic)
in immune mediated hemolytic anemia there are 2 categories of this anemia and most cases are......
24
New cards
Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA)
the red blood cell destruction happens because of the presence of antibodies that attach to the red blood cell membranes. These affected cells are then removed by the immune system, and this leads to an anemia in the patient.
25
New cards
Immune mediated thrombocytopenia
in this platelets are coated with antibodies or complement-antibody complexes. This causes destruction of them. This destruction can occur in the spleen, bone marrow, or liver.
26
New cards
Thrombocytopenia
the most common sign of Ehrlichiosis in the dog
27
New cards
- it is unknown if tx halts the progression to the chronic phase
- not all seropositive dogs are infected
- not all seropositive dogs progress to the chronic phase
- it is unknown if the treatment eliminates the infection
- even if the infection is eliminated, reinfection can occur
- treatment of healthy carriers may result in antimicrobial resistance
Why would a veterinarian choose not to treat a healthy, seropositive dog for Ehrlichia?
28
New cards
Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time (BMBT)
What is the name of the simple in-house we can use to help us detect von Willebrand's Disease?
29
New cards
Type I
Which type of von Willebrand's Disease is administration of desmopressin acetate effective?
30
New cards
- this is an inherited disorder, so affected animals should not be bred
- any trauma or stress may cause a bleeding episode
- surgery will require special precautions to control hemorrhage
- when purchasing dogs that are known to be affected always purchase dogs whose parents have been found to be free of disease
Mr. Holmes' doberman has just been diagnosed with von Willebrand's Disease. What are some things that we need to tell him about caring for a dog with this disease?
31
New cards
True
T/F: When talking about feline lymphoma, the best method of diagnosis is cytology, and the best way to obtain a sample is either FNA or surgical biopsy
32
New cards
no
is lymphoma curable in dogs and cats?
33
New cards
Intact, outdoor, free-roaming males 6-8 years of age
What population of cats are most often affected by feline immunodeficiency virus?
34
New cards
- test for FIV
- if negative, vaccinate and microchip
If a client chooses to vaccinate a cat for FIV, what are 2 things that need to be done
35
New cards
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
You have a patient that presented for gastric-dialation-volvulus (GDV). You are getting the patient stabilized, and your vet tells you to go ahead and draw blood for baseline values. You draw the blood, take the sample to the lab, come back to the treatment area, and you notice that the patient is bleeding from her venipuncture site. Based on the information given, what condition should you be concerned about in your patient?
36
New cards
vitamin K1
what is the antidote for anticoagulant rodenticide poisoning
37
New cards
anaphylaxis
What can happen if you give vitamin K-1 IV?
38
New cards
Increased consumption, Decreased production, increased destruction, and sequestration
decreased numbers of circulating platelets can be from 4 things, what are they?
39
New cards
- Is the pet on any medications?
- Have the owners detected any blood loss or dark tarry stool?
- Have the owners noticed any fleas?
- Has the cat recently been tested for FeLV or FIV?
- Has the owner noticed any ticks on the dog?
- Has the pet been vaccinated recently?
What are some questions for anemic patients?
40
New cards
- Has the female received any "shots for mismating" recently?
- When was she her last heat cycle?
What are important questions to ask an owner about an intact female dog regarding anemia?
41
New cards
hemothorax
blood in the chest
42
New cards
pyothorax
pus in the thorax
43
New cards
pneumothorax
air in the thorax
44
New cards
chylothorax
chyle in the chest
45
New cards
Blastomycosis
most common areas this is found: Kentucky, Illinois, Tennessee, Mississippi, Indiana, Iowa, Ohio, Arkansas, and North Carolina. Inhalation is the most common route of transmission. Amphotericin B is the most effective medication for it.
46
New cards
Histoplasmosis
This is most common in Ohio, Missouri, and the Mississippi river valley. This is associated with bird and bat feces. Inhalation is the main source of infection.
47
New cards
Cryptococcosis
The main route of transmission is inhalation. Immunosuppressed animals are more commonly affected than healthy animals.
48
New cards
Kennel cough
infectious canine tracheobronchitis
49
New cards
Bordetella bronchiseptica and canine parainfluenza virus
What are the 2 most common organisms involved in Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis?
50
New cards
Clavamox, doxycycline, gentamicin, amikacin, or cefazolin
What do we use to treat Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis?
51
New cards
no, it only treats the bacterial components not the infection
Does the antibiotic used to treat Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis clear the infection?
52
New cards
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis
this is a highly contagious respiratory disease of cats. Transmission is by aerosolization and direct contact. The cats will have acute onset of sneezing, conjunctivitis, and rhinitis.
53
New cards
Feline asthma
This is when there is spontaneous bronchoconstriction, airway inflammation and hyperreactivity, acute onset labored breathing, cough, and wheezing. Treatment involves managing airway inflammation.
54
New cards
Feline calcivirus
This is an acute highly contagious respiratory disease of cats with a high morbidity and low mortality. There is fever, discharge, little to no sneezing, oral ulcers, and acute lameness. It is treated with supportive care.
55
New cards
Feline Bordetella
This is caused by Bordetella brontiseptica. There is fever, discharge, and sneezing
56
New cards
put gloves on; rabies can cause a change in voice
A patient comes in for examination. In the history, the owner mentions that the dog has lost its voice. What should you do before starting the exam on the dog? Why?
57
New cards
laryngitis
The most common cause is excessive barking, howling, or meowing. Loss of voice or altered voice, cough, excessive mucus in the back of the throat.
58
New cards
Adneocarcinoma
most pulmonary neoplasms are.....
59
New cards
middle age to old toy and miniature breed dogs that are obese
What population of dogs is collapsing trachea seen in?
60
New cards
pleural effusion
is a build up of fluid in the pleural space that leads to respiratory distress in our patients.
61
New cards
Congestive heart failure (esp right sided), Neoplasia, Foreign body, trauma, pulmonary infection
What can cause pleural effusion?
62
New cards
afterload
the pressure that the chambers of the heart must generate in order to eject blood out of the heart
63
New cards
Systole
when the heart contracts
64
New cards
disatole
when the heart rests in between contractions
65
New cards
cardiac output
the amount of blood in cc's the heart pumps through the body each minute.
66
New cards
ventricular fibrillation
What arrythmia is this?
67
New cards
Defribrillation
How is v-fib treated?
68
New cards
atrial fibrillation
What arrythmia is this?
69
New cards
Calcium channel blockers such as Digoxin
How is A-fib treated?
70
New cards
Ventricular Premature contraction
What arrythmia is this?
71
New cards
Lidocaine, procainamide, tacainamine
What is V-tach treated with?
72
New cards
Heart failure occurs when the blood returning to the heart cannot be pumped back into the body at a rate to maintain the needs of the body. Heart failure is classified as congestive heart failure when the heart allows edema to accumulate in the body. Most heart failures become congestive heart failure as the heart gets worse.
What is the difference in heart failure and congestive heart failure?
73
New cards
taurine
Feline Dilated Cardiomyopathy historically was associated with a \_______ deficiency.
74
New cards
dogs
Dilated cardiomyopathy is more common in.....
75
New cards
cats
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is more common in.....
76
New cards
saddle thrombus
This condition is associated with acute rear leg pain and paresis, cold foot pads that may have a blue tint, no palpable femoral pulse. It is treated with TPA and heparin
77
New cards
It breaks down the clot
Why does TPA help with a saddle thrombus?
78
New cards
Pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and overriding aorta
What are the 4 defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
79
New cards
pulmonic stenosis
narrowing of pulmonic valve
80
New cards
Right ventricle hypertrophy
Thickening of right ventricle
81
New cards
overriding aorta
Aorta is displaced over ventricular septal defect
82
New cards
ventricular septal defect
this is a hole between the left and right ventricles
83
New cards
Taurine deficiency
What is dilated cardiomyopathy in cats associated with?
84
New cards
Persistent right aortic arch
This is congenital defect causing regurgitation of solid food. The aorta vessels don't deteriate and don't allow the esophagus room to grow
85
New cards
Chronic Mitral Valve Insuffiency
What is the most common cardio disorder in small animal medicine?
86
New cards
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
This is when the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth. This results in a connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta. Unoxygenated blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta allowing unoxygenated blood to be pushed into systemic circulation. This results in the puppy not being able to oxygenate its tissues well. Surgical treatment before 2 years of age is recommended.
87
New cards
Feline Heartworm disease clinical signs deal with?
GI and respiratory
88
New cards
Canine heartworm disease clinical signs deals with?
Right sided congestive heart failure
89
New cards
Feline heartworm disease treatment involves what?
cage rest, steroids, and preventatives
90
New cards
Canine heartworm treatment involves what?
rest, doxycline, immiticide, microfilariacide, prenidosone, and preventatives
91
New cards
Feline heartworm testing involves what?
ECG, radiology, and antibody test
92
New cards
Canine Heartworm disease testing involves what?
Antigen test and radiographs
93
New cards
pericardial effusion
This disease is associated with cardiac tumors in the dog, and CHF in the dog, and is characterized by fluid build up in the pericardium
94
New cards
To avoid the coronary vessels
Why should the patient be positioned in left lateral when doing a pericardiocentesis to relieve pericardial effusion
95
New cards
Yes, watch for hiding, seeking comfort, and vocalization
An owner has a question about their dog with epilepsy. They are curious if dogs have an aura phase like humans, and what they need to watch for.
96
New cards
1-2 minutes
How long should a normal seizure last?
97
New cards
Status epilepticus
What is the term when seizures last over 5 minutes and can lead to coma and death?
98
New cards
Diazepam
What is the drug of choice for emergency seizure treatment?
99
New cards
Phenobarbital
What is the drug of choice for maintenance seizure treatment?
100
New cards
Tick Paralysis
This is caused by a tick. The tick will secrete a neurotoxin that causes flaccid, afebrile, ascending paralysis. Removal of the tick usually leads to recovery