SAD final

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256 Terms

1
Passive immunity
when antibodies are formed in one animal and transferred to another animal that is not infected. This transfer provides the uninfected animal with protection against the pathogen.
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2
Inherited immunity
The is a result of genetic factors that influence the developing animals before birth
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3
acquired immunity
is a resistance that develops after an animal is born
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4
artificial immunity
usually due to deliberate exposure with vaccinations
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5
immunity
is understood as a defense against or resistance to, contagious diseases
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6
species resistance
refers to the genetic ability of a particular species to provide defense against certain pathogens
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7
interferon
is a substance that interferes with that ability of viruses to cause disease by preventing their replication within the host cell
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8
complement
binds to the invading cell, makes small holes in the cell membranes, and causes the cell to rupture
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9
macrophage
will attach to foreign substances and take it to the T-cell
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10
b-cell lymphocytes
mediate the production of antibodies in response to an antigen
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11
heat, redness, swelling, and pain
What are the 4 characteristic signs of inflammation?
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12
kill the pathogens, remove the tissue debris, and repair the damaged tissue
What are the goals of inflammation?
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13
humoral immunity
B-cell lymphocytes are associated with....
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14
reticulocyte count or evaluate blood smear for polychromasia
What are 2 ways to determine if an anemia is regenerative or non-regenerative?
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15
blood smear
what is the best way to test for blood borne parasites
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16
regenerative anemia
a high reticulocyte count indicates.....
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17
Non-regenerative anemia
a low reticulocyte count indicates......
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18
iron deficiency anemia
An 8 week old puppy is brought in for lethargy and not eating well. On physical exam you note that its gums are pale, and on the fecal exam you see a large number of hookworms. Your CBC confirms your suspicions of anemia. Based on your knowledge of anemias, which type is most likely affecting this puppy?
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19
inadequate production of erythropoietin by the kidneys leads to bone marrow failure
What is the cause for anemia of Chronic Kidney Disease?
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20
onion toxicity
What is the most common cause of Heinz Body Anemia in the dog?
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21
Aceteminophen toxicity
can lead to Heinz body anemia
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22
True
T/F: Due to the structures of their hemoglobin, cats are more susceptible to Heinz Body Anemia than dogs.
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23
primary (idiopathic)
in immune mediated hemolytic anemia there are 2 categories of this anemia and most cases are......
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24
Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA)
the red blood cell destruction happens because of the presence of antibodies that attach to the red blood cell membranes. These affected cells are then removed by the immune system, and this leads to an anemia in the patient.
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25
Immune mediated thrombocytopenia
in this platelets are coated with antibodies or complement-antibody complexes. This causes destruction of them. This destruction can occur in the spleen, bone marrow, or liver.
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26
Thrombocytopenia
the most common sign of Ehrlichiosis in the dog
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27
  • it is unknown if tx halts the progression to the chronic phase

  • not all seropositive dogs are infected

  • not all seropositive dogs progress to the chronic phase

  • it is unknown if the treatment eliminates the infection

  • even if the infection is eliminated, reinfection can occur

  • treatment of healthy carriers may result in antimicrobial resistance

Why would a veterinarian choose not to treat a healthy, seropositive dog for Ehrlichia?
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28
Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time (BMBT)
What is the name of the simple in-house we can use to help us detect von Willebrand's Disease?
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29
Type I
Which type of von Willebrand's Disease is administration of desmopressin acetate effective?
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30
  • this is an inherited disorder, so affected animals should not be bred

  • any trauma or stress may cause a bleeding episode

  • surgery will require special precautions to control hemorrhage

  • when purchasing dogs that are known to be affected always purchase dogs whose parents have been found to be free of disease

Mr. Holmes' doberman has just been diagnosed with von Willebrand's Disease. What are some things that we need to tell him about caring for a dog with this disease?
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31
True
T/F: When talking about feline lymphoma, the best method of diagnosis is cytology, and the best way to obtain a sample is either FNA or surgical biopsy
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32
no
is lymphoma curable in dogs and cats?
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33
Intact, outdoor, free-roaming males 6-8 years of age
What population of cats are most often affected by feline immunodeficiency virus?
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34
  • test for FIV

  • if negative, vaccinate and microchip

If a client chooses to vaccinate a cat for FIV, what are 2 things that need to be done
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35
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
You have a patient that presented for gastric-dialation-volvulus (GDV). You are getting the patient stabilized, and your vet tells you to go ahead and draw blood for baseline values. You draw the blood, take the sample to the lab, come back to the treatment area, and you notice that the patient is bleeding from her venipuncture site. Based on the information given, what condition should you be concerned about in your patient?
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36
vitamin K1
what is the antidote for anticoagulant rodenticide poisoning
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37
anaphylaxis
What can happen if you give vitamin K-1 IV?
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38
Increased consumption, Decreased production, increased destruction, and sequestration
decreased numbers of circulating platelets can be from 4 things, what are they?
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39
  • Is the pet on any medications?

  • Have the owners detected any blood loss or dark tarry stool?

  • Have the owners noticed any fleas?

  • Has the cat recently been tested for FeLV or FIV?

  • Has the owner noticed any ticks on the dog?

  • Has the pet been vaccinated recently?

What are some questions for anemic patients?
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40
  • Has the female received any "shots for mismating" recently?

  • When was she her last heat cycle?

What are important questions to ask an owner about an intact female dog regarding anemia?
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41
hemothorax
blood in the chest
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42
pyothorax
pus in the thorax
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43
pneumothorax
air in the thorax
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44
chylothorax
chyle in the chest
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45
Blastomycosis
most common areas this is found: Kentucky, Illinois, Tennessee, Mississippi, Indiana, Iowa, Ohio, Arkansas, and North Carolina. Inhalation is the most common route of transmission. Amphotericin B is the most effective medication for it.
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46
Histoplasmosis
This is most common in Ohio, Missouri, and the Mississippi river valley. This is associated with bird and bat feces. Inhalation is the main source of infection.
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47
Cryptococcosis
The main route of transmission is inhalation. Immunosuppressed animals are more commonly affected than healthy animals.
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48
Kennel cough
infectious canine tracheobronchitis
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49
Bordetella bronchiseptica and canine parainfluenza virus
What are the 2 most common organisms involved in Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis?
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50
Clavamox, doxycycline, gentamicin, amikacin, or cefazolin
What do we use to treat Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis?
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51
no, it only treats the bacterial components not the infection
Does the antibiotic used to treat Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis clear the infection?
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52
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis
this is a highly contagious respiratory disease of cats. Transmission is by aerosolization and direct contact. The cats will have acute onset of sneezing, conjunctivitis, and rhinitis.
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53
Feline asthma
This is when there is spontaneous bronchoconstriction, airway inflammation and hyperreactivity, acute onset labored breathing, cough, and wheezing. Treatment involves managing airway inflammation.
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54
Feline calcivirus
This is an acute highly contagious respiratory disease of cats with a high morbidity and low mortality. There is fever, discharge, little to no sneezing, oral ulcers, and acute lameness. It is treated with supportive care.
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55
Feline Bordetella
This is caused by Bordetella brontiseptica. There is fever, discharge, and sneezing
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56
put gloves on; rabies can cause a change in voice
A patient comes in for examination. In the history, the owner mentions that the dog has lost its voice. What should you do before starting the exam on the dog? Why?
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57
laryngitis
The most common cause is excessive barking, howling, or meowing. Loss of voice or altered voice, cough, excessive mucus in the back of the throat.
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58
Adneocarcinoma
most pulmonary neoplasms are.....
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59
middle age to old toy and miniature breed dogs that are obese
What population of dogs is collapsing trachea seen in?
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60
pleural effusion
is a build up of fluid in the pleural space that leads to respiratory distress in our patients.
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61
Congestive heart failure (esp right sided), Neoplasia, Foreign body, trauma, pulmonary infection
What can cause pleural effusion?
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62
afterload
the pressure that the chambers of the heart must generate in order to eject blood out of the heart
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63
Systole
when the heart contracts
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64
disatole
when the heart rests in between contractions
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65
cardiac output
the amount of blood in cc's the heart pumps through the body each minute.
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66
ventricular fibrillation
What arrythmia is this?
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67
Defribrillation
How is v-fib treated?
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68
atrial fibrillation
What arrythmia is this?
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69
Calcium channel blockers such as Digoxin
How is A-fib treated?
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70
Ventricular Premature contraction
What arrythmia is this?
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71
Lidocaine, procainamide, tacainamine
What is V-tach treated with?
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72
Heart failure occurs when the blood returning to the heart cannot be pumped back into the body at a rate to maintain the needs of the body. Heart failure is classified as congestive heart failure when the heart allows edema to accumulate in the body. Most heart failures become congestive heart failure as the heart gets worse.
What is the difference in heart failure and congestive heart failure?
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73
taurine
Feline Dilated Cardiomyopathy historically was associated with a \_______ deficiency.
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74
dogs
Dilated cardiomyopathy is more common in.....
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75
cats
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is more common in.....
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76
saddle thrombus
This condition is associated with acute rear leg pain and paresis, cold foot pads that may have a blue tint, no palpable femoral pulse. It is treated with TPA and heparin
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77
It breaks down the clot
Why does TPA help with a saddle thrombus?
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78
Pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and overriding aorta
What are the 4 defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
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79
pulmonic stenosis
narrowing of pulmonic valve
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80
Right ventricle hypertrophy
Thickening of right ventricle
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81
overriding aorta
Aorta is displaced over ventricular septal defect
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82
ventricular septal defect
this is a hole between the left and right ventricles
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83
Taurine deficiency
What is dilated cardiomyopathy in cats associated with?
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84
Persistent right aortic arch
This is congenital defect causing regurgitation of solid food. The aorta vessels don't deteriate and don't allow the esophagus room to grow
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85
Chronic Mitral Valve Insuffiency
What is the most common cardio disorder in small animal medicine?
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86
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
This is when the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth. This results in a connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta. Unoxygenated blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta allowing unoxygenated blood to be pushed into systemic circulation. This results in the puppy not being able to oxygenate its tissues well. Surgical treatment before 2 years of age is recommended.
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87
Feline Heartworm disease clinical signs deal with?
GI and respiratory
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88
Canine heartworm disease clinical signs deals with?
Right sided congestive heart failure
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89
Feline heartworm disease treatment involves what?
cage rest, steroids, and preventatives
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90
Canine heartworm treatment involves what?
rest, doxycline, immiticide, microfilariacide, prenidosone, and preventatives
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91
Feline heartworm testing involves what?
ECG, radiology, and antibody test
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92
Canine Heartworm disease testing involves what?
Antigen test and radiographs
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93
pericardial effusion
This disease is associated with cardiac tumors in the dog, and CHF in the dog, and is characterized by fluid build up in the pericardium
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94
To avoid the coronary vessels
Why should the patient be positioned in left lateral when doing a pericardiocentesis to relieve pericardial effusion
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95
Yes, watch for hiding, seeking comfort, and vocalization
An owner has a question about their dog with epilepsy. They are curious if dogs have an aura phase like humans, and what they need to watch for.
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96
1-2 minutes
How long should a normal seizure last?
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97
Status epilepticus
What is the term when seizures last over 5 minutes and can lead to coma and death?
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98
Diazepam
What is the drug of choice for emergency seizure treatment?
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99
Phenobarbital
What is the drug of choice for maintenance seizure treatment?
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100
Tick Paralysis
This is caused by a tick. The tick will secrete a neurotoxin that causes flaccid, afebrile, ascending paralysis. Removal of the tick usually leads to recovery
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