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Passive immunity

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256 Terms

1

Passive immunity

when antibodies are formed in one animal and transferred to another animal that is not infected. This transfer provides the uninfected animal with protection against the pathogen.

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2

Inherited immunity

The is a result of genetic factors that influence the developing animals before birth

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3

acquired immunity

is a resistance that develops after an animal is born

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4

artificial immunity

usually due to deliberate exposure with vaccinations

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5

immunity

is understood as a defense against or resistance to, contagious diseases

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6

species resistance

refers to the genetic ability of a particular species to provide defense against certain pathogens

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7

interferon

is a substance that interferes with that ability of viruses to cause disease by preventing their replication within the host cell

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8

complement

binds to the invading cell, makes small holes in the cell membranes, and causes the cell to rupture

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9

macrophage

will attach to foreign substances and take it to the T-cell

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10

b-cell lymphocytes

mediate the production of antibodies in response to an antigen

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11

heat, redness, swelling, and pain

What are the 4 characteristic signs of inflammation?

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12

kill the pathogens, remove the tissue debris, and repair the damaged tissue

What are the goals of inflammation?

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13

humoral immunity

B-cell lymphocytes are associated with....

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14

reticulocyte count or evaluate blood smear for polychromasia

What are 2 ways to determine if an anemia is regenerative or non-regenerative?

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15

blood smear

what is the best way to test for blood borne parasites

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16

regenerative anemia

a high reticulocyte count indicates.....

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17

Non-regenerative anemia

a low reticulocyte count indicates......

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18

iron deficiency anemia

An 8 week old puppy is brought in for lethargy and not eating well. On physical exam you note that its gums are pale, and on the fecal exam you see a large number of hookworms. Your CBC confirms your suspicions of anemia. Based on your knowledge of anemias, which type is most likely affecting this puppy?

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19

inadequate production of erythropoietin by the kidneys leads to bone marrow failure

What is the cause for anemia of Chronic Kidney Disease?

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20

onion toxicity

What is the most common cause of Heinz Body Anemia in the dog?

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21

Aceteminophen toxicity

can lead to Heinz body anemia

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22

True

T/F: Due to the structures of their hemoglobin, cats are more susceptible to Heinz Body Anemia than dogs.

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23

primary (idiopathic)

in immune mediated hemolytic anemia there are 2 categories of this anemia and most cases are......

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24

Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA)

the red blood cell destruction happens because of the presence of antibodies that attach to the red blood cell membranes. These affected cells are then removed by the immune system, and this leads to an anemia in the patient.

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25

Immune mediated thrombocytopenia

in this platelets are coated with antibodies or complement-antibody complexes. This causes destruction of them. This destruction can occur in the spleen, bone marrow, or liver.

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26

Thrombocytopenia

the most common sign of Ehrlichiosis in the dog

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27
  • it is unknown if tx halts the progression to the chronic phase

  • not all seropositive dogs are infected

  • not all seropositive dogs progress to the chronic phase

  • it is unknown if the treatment eliminates the infection

  • even if the infection is eliminated, reinfection can occur

  • treatment of healthy carriers may result in antimicrobial resistance

Why would a veterinarian choose not to treat a healthy, seropositive dog for Ehrlichia?

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28

Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time (BMBT)

What is the name of the simple in-house we can use to help us detect von Willebrand's Disease?

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29

Type I

Which type of von Willebrand's Disease is administration of desmopressin acetate effective?

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30
  • this is an inherited disorder, so affected animals should not be bred

  • any trauma or stress may cause a bleeding episode

  • surgery will require special precautions to control hemorrhage

  • when purchasing dogs that are known to be affected always purchase dogs whose parents have been found to be free of disease

Mr. Holmes' doberman has just been diagnosed with von Willebrand's Disease. What are some things that we need to tell him about caring for a dog with this disease?

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31

True

T/F: When talking about feline lymphoma, the best method of diagnosis is cytology, and the best way to obtain a sample is either FNA or surgical biopsy

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32

no

is lymphoma curable in dogs and cats?

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33

Intact, outdoor, free-roaming males 6-8 years of age

What population of cats are most often affected by feline immunodeficiency virus?

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34
  • test for FIV

  • if negative, vaccinate and microchip

If a client chooses to vaccinate a cat for FIV, what are 2 things that need to be done

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35

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

You have a patient that presented for gastric-dialation-volvulus (GDV). You are getting the patient stabilized, and your vet tells you to go ahead and draw blood for baseline values. You draw the blood, take the sample to the lab, come back to the treatment area, and you notice that the patient is bleeding from her venipuncture site. Based on the information given, what condition should you be concerned about in your patient?

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36

vitamin K1

what is the antidote for anticoagulant rodenticide poisoning

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37

anaphylaxis

What can happen if you give vitamin K-1 IV?

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38

Increased consumption, Decreased production, increased destruction, and sequestration

decreased numbers of circulating platelets can be from 4 things, what are they?

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39
  • Is the pet on any medications?

  • Have the owners detected any blood loss or dark tarry stool?

  • Have the owners noticed any fleas?

  • Has the cat recently been tested for FeLV or FIV?

  • Has the owner noticed any ticks on the dog?

  • Has the pet been vaccinated recently?

What are some questions for anemic patients?

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40
  • Has the female received any "shots for mismating" recently?

  • When was she her last heat cycle?

What are important questions to ask an owner about an intact female dog regarding anemia?

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41

hemothorax

blood in the chest

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42

pyothorax

pus in the thorax

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43

pneumothorax

air in the thorax

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44

chylothorax

chyle in the chest

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45

Blastomycosis

most common areas this is found: Kentucky, Illinois, Tennessee, Mississippi, Indiana, Iowa, Ohio, Arkansas, and North Carolina. Inhalation is the most common route of transmission. Amphotericin B is the most effective medication for it.

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46

Histoplasmosis

This is most common in Ohio, Missouri, and the Mississippi river valley. This is associated with bird and bat feces. Inhalation is the main source of infection.

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47

Cryptococcosis

The main route of transmission is inhalation. Immunosuppressed animals are more commonly affected than healthy animals.

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48

Kennel cough

infectious canine tracheobronchitis

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49

Bordetella bronchiseptica and canine parainfluenza virus

What are the 2 most common organisms involved in Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis?

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50

Clavamox, doxycycline, gentamicin, amikacin, or cefazolin

What do we use to treat Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis?

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51

no, it only treats the bacterial components not the infection

Does the antibiotic used to treat Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis clear the infection?

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52

Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis

this is a highly contagious respiratory disease of cats. Transmission is by aerosolization and direct contact. The cats will have acute onset of sneezing, conjunctivitis, and rhinitis.

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53

Feline asthma

This is when there is spontaneous bronchoconstriction, airway inflammation and hyperreactivity, acute onset labored breathing, cough, and wheezing. Treatment involves managing airway inflammation.

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54

Feline calcivirus

This is an acute highly contagious respiratory disease of cats with a high morbidity and low mortality. There is fever, discharge, little to no sneezing, oral ulcers, and acute lameness. It is treated with supportive care.

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55

Feline Bordetella

This is caused by Bordetella brontiseptica. There is fever, discharge, and sneezing

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56

put gloves on; rabies can cause a change in voice

A patient comes in for examination. In the history, the owner mentions that the dog has lost its voice. What should you do before starting the exam on the dog? Why?

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57

laryngitis

The most common cause is excessive barking, howling, or meowing. Loss of voice or altered voice, cough, excessive mucus in the back of the throat.

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58

Adneocarcinoma

most pulmonary neoplasms are.....

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59

middle age to old toy and miniature breed dogs that are obese

What population of dogs is collapsing trachea seen in?

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60

pleural effusion

is a build up of fluid in the pleural space that leads to respiratory distress in our patients.

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61

Congestive heart failure (esp right sided), Neoplasia, Foreign body, trauma, pulmonary infection

What can cause pleural effusion?

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62

afterload

the pressure that the chambers of the heart must generate in order to eject blood out of the heart

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63

Systole

when the heart contracts

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64

disatole

when the heart rests in between contractions

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65

cardiac output

the amount of blood in cc's the heart pumps through the body each minute.

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66

ventricular fibrillation

What arrythmia is this?

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67

Defribrillation

How is v-fib treated?

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68

atrial fibrillation

What arrythmia is this?

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69

Calcium channel blockers such as Digoxin

How is A-fib treated?

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70

Ventricular Premature contraction

What arrythmia is this?

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71

Lidocaine, procainamide, tacainamine

What is V-tach treated with?

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72

Heart failure occurs when the blood returning to the heart cannot be pumped back into the body at a rate to maintain the needs of the body. Heart failure is classified as congestive heart failure when the heart allows edema to accumulate in the body. Most heart failures become congestive heart failure as the heart gets worse.

What is the difference in heart failure and congestive heart failure?

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73

taurine

Feline Dilated Cardiomyopathy historically was associated with a _______ deficiency.

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74

dogs

Dilated cardiomyopathy is more common in.....

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75

cats

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is more common in.....

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76

saddle thrombus

This condition is associated with acute rear leg pain and paresis, cold foot pads that may have a blue tint, no palpable femoral pulse. It is treated with TPA and heparin

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77

It breaks down the clot

Why does TPA help with a saddle thrombus?

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78

Pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and overriding aorta

What are the 4 defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

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79

pulmonic stenosis

narrowing of pulmonic valve

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80

Right ventricle hypertrophy

Thickening of right ventricle

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81

overriding aorta

Aorta is displaced over ventricular septal defect

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82

ventricular septal defect

this is a hole between the left and right ventricles

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83

Taurine deficiency

What is dilated cardiomyopathy in cats associated with?

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84

Persistent right aortic arch

This is congenital defect causing regurgitation of solid food. The aorta vessels don't deteriate and don't allow the esophagus room to grow

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85

Chronic Mitral Valve Insuffiency

What is the most common cardio disorder in small animal medicine?

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86

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

This is when the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth. This results in a connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta. Unoxygenated blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta allowing unoxygenated blood to be pushed into systemic circulation. This results in the puppy not being able to oxygenate its tissues well. Surgical treatment before 2 years of age is recommended.

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87

Feline Heartworm disease clinical signs deal with?

GI and respiratory

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88

Canine heartworm disease clinical signs deals with?

Right sided congestive heart failure

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89

Feline heartworm disease treatment involves what?

cage rest, steroids, and preventatives

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90

Canine heartworm treatment involves what?

rest, doxycline, immiticide, microfilariacide, prenidosone, and preventatives

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91

Feline heartworm testing involves what?

ECG, radiology, and antibody test

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92

Canine Heartworm disease testing involves what?

Antigen test and radiographs

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93

pericardial effusion

This disease is associated with cardiac tumors in the dog, and CHF in the dog, and is characterized by fluid build up in the pericardium

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94

To avoid the coronary vessels

Why should the patient be positioned in left lateral when doing a pericardiocentesis to relieve pericardial effusion

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95

Yes, watch for hiding, seeking comfort, and vocalization

An owner has a question about their dog with epilepsy. They are curious if dogs have an aura phase like humans, and what they need to watch for.

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96

1-2 minutes

How long should a normal seizure last?

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97

Status epilepticus

What is the term when seizures last over 5 minutes and can lead to coma and death?

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98

Diazepam

What is the drug of choice for emergency seizure treatment?

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99

Phenobarbital

What is the drug of choice for maintenance seizure treatment?

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100

Tick Paralysis

This is caused by a tick. The tick will secrete a neurotoxin that causes flaccid, afebrile, ascending paralysis. Removal of the tick usually leads to recovery

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