Skin Integrity

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Last updated 2:20 PM on 7/14/26
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64 Terms

1
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The Stratum corneum acts as a semipermeable barrier.

True.

2
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Which epidermal layer is responsible for the capability to stretch?

Stratum lucidum

3
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Which cells are important for the modulation of the adaptive immune response?

Langerhans cells

4
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What is the function of Merkel cells?

Neuroendocrine function

5
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Which layer serves as the interface between the epidermis and the dermis?

Basement membrane (lamina)

6
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What cell type is responsible for producing collagen and elastic fibers?

Fibroblasts

7
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Which skin component releases histamine and heparin?

Mast cells

8
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Which glands are responsible for body odor?

Apocrine glands

9
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What is the primary role of Eccrine glands?

Temperature regulation

10
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Which specialized nerve receptor is responsible for light touch?

Meissner's corpuscles

11
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Name the receptor for pressure and vibration

Pacinian corpuscles

12
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 Subcutaneous fat is essential for the metabolism of sex hormones.

True

13
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_______ is the connective tissue layer located beneath the subcutaneous fat that overlies the muscle.

Fascia

14
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________ are critical structures that permit the adhesion of keratinocytes to each other to maintain skin integrity.

Desmosomes

15
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What is the role of Hemidesmosomes?

Adhesion of basal keratinocytes to the basement membrane

16
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Which collagen type is the basement membrane primarily composed of?

Type IV

17
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What anchors the dermal–epidermal junction to the papillary dermis?

Type VII collagen and anchoring filaments

18
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What percentage of the dry weight of the dermis is comprised of collagen?

75%

19
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________  is associated with collagen synthesis defects, leading to hyperextensible joints and skin.

Ehlers–Danlos syndrome

20
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Which syndrome is linked to defects in elastic fibrils?

Marfan syndrome

21
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 What are three primary consequences of compromised skin integrity?

  • Infection

  • Impaired mobility

  • Decreased function

22
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_________ include nutritional status, vascular disease, and diabetes.

Intrinsic factors

23
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___________ include pressure, falls, immobility, and surgical procedures.

Extrinsic factors

24
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What is another name for Decubitus ulcers?

Pressure ulcers (or bed sores)

25
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What is the chief cause of pressure ulcers?

Extrinsic pressure

26
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Where is the risk for pressure ulcers greatest in a hospital setting?

  • ICU

  • Orthopedic patients

27
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Pressure ulcers usually develop after the first month of hospitalization.

False

28
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List four modifiable risk factors for pressure ulcers.

  • Immobility

  • Dry skin

  • Nutrition

  • Weight/BMI

29
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What characterizes a Stage I pressure ulcer?

Nonblanchable erythema on intact skin

30
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Define a Stage II pressure ulcer

Partial-thickness skin loss

31
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Which stage involves full-thickness tissue loss where subcutaneous fat may be visible?

Stage III

32
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What defines a Stage IV pressure ulcer?

Full-thickness loss with exposed bone, muscle, or tendon

33
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What is an "Unstageable" pressure ulcer?

Ulcer covered by eschar or slough

34
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 Describe a "Suspect Deep Tissue Injury."

Purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin

35
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What is the first epidermal response to pressure?

Hyperemia

36
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_______ erythema occurs when capillary refilling happens after gentle pressure.

Blanchable

37
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_________ erythema exists when finger pressure does not produce blanching.

Nonblanchable

38
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Where do arterial ulcers typically occur?

  • Distal leg

  • Lateral malleoli

  • Toes

39
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What is the clinical appearance of an arterial ulcer?

Gangrene (wet or dry)

40
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Which diagnostic test is inexpensive and accurate for peripheral arterial disease?

Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI)

41
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What is the most important factor in the development of a diabetic ulcer?

Neuropathy

42
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 What is the typical appearance of a diabetic ulcer?

Deep crater-like appearance with callus

43
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Name three pathophysiological causes of venous leg ulcers.

  • Reflux

  • Obstruction

  • Calf muscle pump failure

44
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What are common physical exam findings for chronic venous stasis disease?

  • Pigmentation changes

  • Weeping

  • Edema

45
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Where is the "gaiter" area located?

Malleolar area upward to the knee

46
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Describe the typical shape and bed of a venous ulcer.

Irregularly shaped, shallow, and exudative

47
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 Maintaining a dry wound environment increases the rate of healing.

False

48
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List three therapies that are detrimental to chronic wound healing.

  • Dry gauze

  • Heat lamps

  • Air exposure

49
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Which dressing type showed a high number of persons healed (455 more per 1000)?

Tripeptide copper gel

50
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What are some adjunctive therapies for treating pressure ulcers?

Growth factors and debridement

51
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Where do most pressure ulcers develop on the body?

Bony prominences like the sacrum and heels

52
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Pressure ulcers always progress linearly from Stage 1 to Stage 4.

False

53
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What is the most common mechanism for traumatic wounds?

Blunt force

54
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How do sharp objects produce wounds?

Shear forces

55
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Traumatic wounds account for what percentage of all ER visits?

6%

56
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What are the most frequent locations for traumatic wounds?

  • Face

  • Scalp

  • Fingers

  • Hands

57
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Why do bite wounds require different management than other lacerations?

Higher risk for infection

58
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_______ are those that are multilayered or present as flap, stellate, or corner flap wounds.

Complex lacerations

59
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A _________ is typically superficial and linear in nature.

Simple laceration

60
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List some systemic factors that negatively impact wound healing.

  • Diabetes

  • Renal disease

  • Malnutrition

  • Immunosuppression

61
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What is the purpose of reviewing the mechanism of injury for a wound?

To identify risks for contaminants and foreign bodies.

62
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Which protein family in desmosomes includes Desmogleins?

Cadherins

63
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Name the proteins in the Armadillo family found in desmosomes.

  • Plakoglobin

  • Plakophilin

64
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What does "lipodermatosclerosis" refer to?

Skin hardening in venous disease