Daddy martino it420 uwu

1. What is the primary role of an IT Instructor?
a. A) Network Administrator
b. B) Software Developer
c. C) University Lecturer
d. D) Database Manager

C) University Lecturer

2. What is Layer 1 of the OSI Model?
a. A) Application
b. B) Data Link
c. C) Physical
d. D) Session

C) Physical

3. What is Layer 4 for the OSI Model?
a. A) Application
b. B) Data Link
c. C) Physical
d. D) Transport

D) Transport

4. What are the three elements of any communication?
a. A) Source, Destination, Channel
b. B) Sender, Receiver, Protocol
c. C) Input, Output, Process
d. D) Data, Signal, Transmission

A) Source, Destination, Channel

5. What governs all communications?
a. A) Hardware
b. B) Protocols
c. C) Software
d. D) Networks

B) Protocols

6. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for protocols?
a. A) Identified sender and receiver
b. B) Common language and grammar
c. C) Speed and timing of delivery
d. D) Encryption and decryption

D) Encryption and decryption

7. What is the process of converting information into another acceptable form for transmission?
a. A) Encoding
b. B) Decoding
c. C) Formatting
d. D) Encapsulation

A) Encoding

8. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data formatting and presentation?
a. A) Application
b. B) Presentation
c. C) Session
d. D) Transport

B) Presentation

9. What is the main function of the Transport layer in the TCP/IP model?
a. A) Host-to-host delivery
b. B) Process-to-process delivery
c. C) Network access
d. D) Data encoding

B) Process-to-process delivery

10. Which method of message delivery involves one-to-one communication?
a. A) Unicast
b. B) Multicast
c. C) Broadcast
d. D) Anycast

A) Unicast

11. What is the purpose of segmenting messages?
a. A) To increase speed and efficiency
b. B) To ensure data encryption
c. C) To format data for transmission
d. D) To decode received messages

A) To increase speed and efficiency

12. Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for error detection and correction?
a. A) Physical
b. B) Data Link
c. C) Network
d. D) Transport

B) Data Link

13. What is the process of adding headers and trailers to data as it passes down the layers called?
a. A) Encoding
b. B) Decoding
c. C) Encapsulation
d. D) Multiplexing

C) Encapsulation

14. Which protocol is responsible for sequencing individual segments?
a. A) UDP
b. B) TCP
c. C) IP
d. D) HTTP

B) TCP

15. What is the main job of the Network layer in the TCP/IP model?
a. A) Process-to-process delivery
b. B) Host-to-host delivery
c. C) Data formatting
d. D) Physical transmission

B) Host-to-host delivery

16. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Data Link layer?
a. A) Error detection
b. B) Frame creation
c. C) IP addressing
d. D) Media access control

C) IP addressing

17. What is the primary purpose of protocols in networking?
a. A) To control data flow
b. B) To ensure interoperability
c. C) To encrypt data
d. D) To manage hardware

B) To ensure interoperability

18. Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for media access control?
a. A) Physical
b. B) Data Link
c. C) Network
d. D) Transport

B) Data Link

19. What is the main function of the Application layer in the TCP/IP model?
a. A) Data encoding
b. B) Host-to-host delivery
c. C) Network access
d. D) Providing user interface

D) Providing user interface

20. Which of the following is an example of an open system?
a. A) Proprietary software
b. B) TCP/IP protocol suite
c. C) Closed network
d. D) Private network

B) TCP/IP protocol suite

1. Who invented the Ethernet?
• A) IBM
• B) Xerox
• C) Intel
• D) Microsoft

B) Xerox

2. What layer of the OSI model does Ethernet operate at?
• A) Layer 1
• B) Layer 2
• C) Layer 3
• D) Layer 4

B) Layer 2

3. What is the bit length of a MAC address used by IEEE LAN standards?
• A) 32 bits
• B) 48 bits
• C) 64 bits
• D) 128 bits

B) 48 bits

4. How is the MAC address written?
• A) 10 hexadecimal digits
• B) 12 hexadecimal digits
• C) 16 hexadecimal digits
• D) 8 hexadecimal digits

B) 12 hexadecimal digits

5. What is the first half of a MAC address assigned to?
• A) The network
• B) The vendor
• C) The user
• D) The device

B) The vendor

6. What type of MAC address identifies a single host?
• A) Unicast
• B) Broadcast
• C) Multicast
• D) Anycast

A) Unicast

7. What is the broadcast MAC address?
• A) 00-00-00-00-00-00
• B) FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
• C) 01-00-5E-00-00-00
• D) 00-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

B) FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

8. What is the OUI for multicast MAC addresses?
• A) 00-00-00
• B) FF-FF-FF
• C) 01-00-5E
• D) 00-01-5E

C) 01-00-5E

9. What is the speed of Fast Ethernet?
• A) 10 Mbps
• B) 100 Mbps
• C) 1000 Mbps
• D) 10,000 Mbps

B) 100 Mbps

10. What is the speed of Gigabit Ethernet?
• A) 10 Mbps
• B) 100 Mbps
• C) 1000 Mbps
• D) 10,000 Mbps

C) 1000 Mbps

11. What is the speed of 10 Gigabit Ethernet?
• A) 100 Mbps
• B) 1000 Mbps
• C) 10,000 Mbps
• D) 100,000 Mbps

C) 10,000 Mbps

12. What type of media is used in Ethernet networks?
• A) Coaxial cable
• B) Unshielded twisted pair (UTP/STP) or fiber
• C) Wireless
• D) Powerline

B) Unshielded twisted pair (UTP/STP) or fiber

13. What topology is commonly used in Ethernet networks?
• A) Bus
• B) Ring
• C) Star
• D) Mesh

C) Star

14. What device is used in the center of a star topology in Ethernet networks?
• A) Hub
• B) Router
• C) Switch
• D) Repeater

C) Switch

15. What layer(s) do switches operate in Ethernet networks?
• A) Layer 1 only
• B) Layer 2 only
• C) Layer 1 and Layer 2
• D) Layer 3 only

(Originally this was B but professor regrade to C)
C) Layer 1 and Layer 2

16. What does a switch use to determine where to send a frame?
• A) IP address
• B) MAC address
• C) Port number
• D) VLAN ID

B) MAC address

17. Why is Ethernet considered reliable?
• A) It uses wireless technology
• B) Failures are rare when a hub or switch is used
• C) It is expensive
• D) It requires complex software

B) Failures are rare when a hub or switch is used

18. Why is Ethernet cost-effective?
• A) It uses expensive media
• B) Switches and NICs are inexpensive due to volume
• C) It requires a lot of configurations
• D) It uses fiber optics

B) Switches and NICs are inexpensive due to volume

19. What is the maximum data transmission speed of Cat5 cable?
• A) 10 Mbps
• B) 100 Mbps
• C) 1000 Mbps
• D) 10,000 Mbps

B) 100 Mbps

20. Which of the following is a type of fiber optic connector?
• A) RJ45
• B) BNC
• C) SC
• D) HDMI

C) SC

1. What is a key feature of modern Ethernets?
• A) Use of hubs
• B) Use of switches
• C) Use of routers
• D) Use of repeaters

B) Use of switches

2. What do switches store to forward frames to the correct destination?
• A) IP addresses
• B) MAC addresses
• C) Hostnames
• D) Port numbers

B) MAC addresses

3. What type of connection prevents collisions in a switched Ethernet network?
• A) Half-duplex
• B) Full-duplex
• C) Simplex
• D) Multiplex

B) Full-duplex

4. What is a broadcast domain?
• A) A network segment where only one host can transmit at a time
• B) A network segment where all devices receive broadcast messages
• C) A network segment where collisions occur frequently
• D) A network segment with no switches

B) A network segment where all devices receive broadcast messages

5. What problem can occur if switches are connected in a loop?
• A) Collision domain
• B) Broadcast storm
• C) Full-duplex failure
• D) MAC address conflict

B) Broadcast storm

6. What algorithm is used to prevent loops in a network?
• A) Dijkstra's Algorithm
• B) Spanning Tree Algorithm
• C) Bellman-Ford Algorithm
• D) Kruskal's Algorithm

B) Spanning Tree Algorithm

7. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• A) To increase network speed
• B) To create a loop-free topology
• C) To store MAC addresses
• D) To manage IP addresses

B) To create a loop-free topology

8. What is a VLAN?
• A) A physical network segment
• B) A logical grouping of devices
• C) A type of switch
• D) A type of router

B) A logical grouping of devices

9. What is the main advantage of using VLANs?
• A) Increased broadcast traffic
• B) Improved security and segmentation
• C) Reduced network speed
• D) Increased collision domains

B) Improved security and segmentation

10. What is VLAN trunking?
• A) Connecting multiple VLANs to a single switch
• B) Passing traffic for multiple VLANs through a single port
• C) Isolating VLANs from each other
• D) Disabling VLANs

B) Passing traffic for multiple VLANs through a single port

11. What is the first step in building a loop-free topology with STP?
• A) Elect the root ports
• B) Elect the root bridge
• C) Elect designated ports
• D) Elect alternate ports

B) Elect the root bridge

12. What is a BPDU?
• A) Bridge Protocol Data Unit
• B) Broadcast Protocol Data Unit
• C) Binary Protocol Data Unit
• D) Base Protocol Data Unit

A) Bridge Protocol Data Unit

13. What does Bridge ID (BID) contain?
• A) IP address, MAC address, and VLAN ID
• B) Priority value, MAC address, and extended system ID
• C) Port number, MAC address, and VLAN ID
• D) IP address, priority value, and port number

B) Priority value, MAC address, and extended system ID

14. What is the default priority value for Cisco switches?
• A) 4096
• B) 32768
• C) 61440
• D) 1024

B) 32768

15. What determines the root bridge in STP?
• A) Highest BID
• B) Lowest BID
• C) Highest MAC address
• D) Lowest IP address

B) Lowest BID

16. What is the role of a root port in STP?
• A) To block redundant paths
• B) To connect to the root bridge
• C) To forward broadcast frames
• D) To store MAC addresses

B) To connect to the root bridge

17. What happens to a port that is not a root port or a designated port in STP?
• A) It becomes a trunk port
• B) It becomes an alternate (blocked) port
• C) It becomes a root bridge
• D) It becomes a broadcast port

B) It becomes an alternate (blocked) port

18. What is the purpose of InterVLAN routing?
• A) To connect VLANs to the internet
• B) To allow communication between different VLANs
• C) To isolate VLANs from each other
• D) To increase VLAN traffic

B) To allow communication between different VLANs

19. What is a key advantage of VLANs in terms of security?
• A) They increase broadcast traffic
• B) They limit traffic to specific groups
• C) They reduce network speed
• D) They increase collision domains

B) They limit traffic to specific groups

20. What is the impact of running the Spanning Tree Algorithm on older devices?
• A) Increased network speed
• B) No traffic for roughly a minute
• C) Immediate loop prevention
• D) Continuous traffic flow

B) No traffic for roughly a minute

1. What is the primary benefit of WLANs?
• A) Increased cost
• B) Mobility within environments
• C) Reduced speed
• D) Limited connectivity

B) Mobility within environments

2. Which type of wireless network is used for short-range communication (20-30ft)?
• A) WLAN
• B) WPAN
• C) WMAN
• D) WWAN

B) WPAN

3. What frequency bands do WLANs operate in?
• A) 1.8 GHz and 3.6 GHz
• B) 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz
• C) 3.5 GHz and 6 GHz
• D) 4.9 GHz and 7 GHz

B) 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz

4. Which IEEE standard is used for Bluetooth?
• A) 802.11
• B) 802.15
• C) 802.16
• D) 802.3

B) 802.15

5. What is the maximum distance for WiMAX technology?
• A) 10 miles
• B) 20 miles
• C) 30 miles
• D) 40 miles

C) 30 miles

6. Which wireless technology is primarily used in rural areas?
• A) WiMAX
• B) Cellular Broadband
• C) Satellite Broadband
• D) Bluetooth

C) Satellite Broadband

7. Which organization regulates the allocation of radio spectrum?
• A) IEEE
• B) ITU
• C) Wi-Fi Alliance
• D) FCC

B) ITU

8. What is the role of a wireless NIC?
• A) To provide wired connectivity
• B) To transmit and receive radio signals
• C) To act as a router
• D) To manage network security

B) To transmit and receive radio signals

9. What is the function of a wireless home router?
• A) Only as an access point
• B) Only as a switch
• C) Only as a router
• D) As an access point, switch, and router

D) As an access point, switch, and router

10. What is an autonomous AP?
• A) A device that requires a controller
• B) A standalone device configured through CLI or GUI
• C) A device that cannot be configured
• D) A device used only in large enterprises

B) A standalone device configured through CLI or GUI

11. Which type of antenna provides 360-degree coverage?
• A) Directional
• B) Omnidirectional
• C) Yagi
• D) Parabolic dish

B) Omnidirectional

12. What is the difference between ad hoc and infrastructure mode?
• A) Ad hoc uses an AP, infrastructure does not
• B) Ad hoc connects clients peer-to-peer, infrastructure uses an AP
• C) Both use APs
• D) Both connect clients peer-to-peer

B) Ad hoc connects clients peer-to-peer, infrastructure uses an AP

13. What does BSS stand for in WLAN topology?
• A) Basic Service Set
• B) Broadcast Service Set
• C) Basic Signal Set
• D) Broadcast Signal Set

A) Basic Service Set

14. What is the purpose of CSMA/CA in WLANs?
• A) To increase data speed
• B) To avoid collisions
• C) To reduce signal strength
• D) To enhance security

B) To avoid collisions

15. What is required for a wireless client to associate with an AP?
• A) IP address
• B) SSID and password
• C) MAC address
• D) VLAN ID

B) SSID and password

16. What is CAPWAP used for?
• A) To manage multiple APs and WLANs
• B) To provide internet access
• C) Encrypting data
• D) To configure routers

A) To manage multiple APs and WLANs

17. What is DTLS?
• A) A type of antenna
• B) A security protocol for AP and WLC communication
• C) A frequency band
• D) A wireless standard

B) A security protocol for AP and WLC communication

18. Which technique is used to mitigate channel saturation?
• A) DSSS
• B) CSMA/CD
• C) VLAN
• D) NAT

A) DSSS

19. How many channels are available in the 2.4 GHz band?
• A) 11
• B) 13
• C) 14
• D) 16

C) 14

20. What is a rogue AP?
• A) An authorized device on the network
• B) An unauthorized device on the network
• C) A device used for encryption
• D) A device used for routing

B) An unauthorized device on the network

1. Given the network address 192.168.1.0/24, what is the first host address?
• A) 192.168.1.0
• B) 192.168.1.1
• C) 192.168.1.254
• D) 192.168.1.255

B) 192.168.1.1

2. For the network 10.0.0.0/8, what is the last host address?
• A) 10.0.0.254
• B) 10.0.0.255
• C) 10.255.255.254
• D) 10.255.255.255

C) 10.255.255.254

3. What is the next subnet after 172.16.0.0/16 if you are using a subnet mask of /24?
• A) 172.16.1.0/24
• B) 172.16.0.1/24
• C) 172.16.0.255/24
• D) 172.16.2.0/24

A) 172.16.1.0/24

4. In the network 192.168.10.0/24, what is the broadcast address?
• A) 192.168.10.0
• B) 192.168.10.1
• C) 192.168.10.254
• D) 192.168.10.255

D) 192.168.10.255

5. For the subnet 192.168.5.0/26, what is the first host address?
• A) 192.168.5.0
• B) 192.168.5.1
• C) 192.168.5.62
• D) 192.168.5.63

B) 192.168.5.1

6. What is the last host address in the subnet 192.168.20.128/25?
• A) 192.168.20.128
• B) 192.168.20.129
• C) 192.168.20.254
• D) 192.168.20.255

C) 192.168.20.254

7. Given the network 10.10.10.0/24, what is the next subnet if you are using a subnet mask of /25?
• A) 10.10.10.64/25
• B) 10.10.10.128/25
• C) 10.10.10.192/25
• D) 10.10.11.0/25

B) 10.10.10.128/25

8. In the network 172.16.0.0/20, what is the first host address?
• A) 172.16.0.0
• B) 172.16.0.1
• C) 172.16.0.255
• D) 172.16.1.0

B) 172.16.0.1

9. What is the broadcast address for the subnet 192.168.100.0/23?
• A) 192.168.100.255
• B) 192.168.101.255
• C) 192.168.102.0
• D) 192.168.102.255

B) 192.168.101.255

10. For the network 10.0.0.0/16, what is the next subnet if you are using a subnet mask of /17?
• A) 10.0.0.128/17
• B) 10.0.1.0/17
• C) 10.0.128.0/17
• D) 10.1.0.0/17

C) 10.0.128.0/17

11. Given the network address 192.168.50.0/24, what is the last host address?
• A) 192.168.50.0
• B) 192.168.50.1
• C) 192.168.50.254
• D) 192.168.50.255

C) 192.168.50.254

12. For the network 172.16.10.0/24, what is the next subnet if you are using a subnet mask of /25?
• A) 172.16.10.64/25
• B) 172.16.10.128/25
• C) 172.16.10.192/25
• D) 172.16.11.0/25

B) 172.16.10.128/25

13. What is the first host address in the subnet 10.10.20.0/23?
• A) 10.10.20.0
• B) 10.10.20.1
• C) 10.10.21.0
• D) 10.10.21.1

B) 10.10.20.1

14. What is the broadcast address for the subnet 192.168.30.0/26?
• A) 192.168.30.63
• B) 192.168.30.64
• C) 192.168.30.127
• D) 192.168.30.128

A) 192.168.30.63

15. In the network 172.16.5.0/24, what is the first host address?
• A) 172.16.5.0
• B) 172.16.5.1
• C) 172.16.5.254
• D) 172.16.5.255

B) 172.16.5.1

16. What is the last host address in the subnet 192.168.40.0/25?
• A) 192.168.40.0
• B) 192.168.40.127
• C) 192.168.40.128
• D) 192.168.40.255

pretty sure it should be 192.168.40.126 since the answer is actually the broadcast ip
B) 192.168.40.127

17. Given the network 10.0.1.0/24, what is the next subnet if you are using a subnet mask of /25?
• A) 10.0.1.64/25
• B) 10.0.1.128/25
• C) 10.0.1.192/25
• D) 10.0.2.0/25

B) 10.0.1.128/25

18. In the network 192.168.60.0/22, what is the first host address?
• A) 192.168.60.0
• B) 192.168.60.1
• C) 192.168.60.255
• D) 192.168.61.0

B) 192.168.60.1

19. What is the broadcast address for the subnet 172.16.100.0/23?
• A) 172.16.100.255
• B) 172.16.101.255
• C) 172.16.102.0
• D) 172.16.102.255

B) 172.16.101.255

20. For the network 192.168.70.0/24, what is the next subnet if you are using a subnet mask of /25?
• A) 192.168.70.64/25
• B) 192.168.70.128/25
• C) 192.168.70.192/25
• D) 192.168.71.0/25

B) 192.168.70.128/25