Urine Elinination 100 practice questions

What is a primary function of the glomerulus in the kidneys?

A) Producing erythropoietin

B) Regulating acid-base balance

C) Filtering water, glucose, and urea

D) Storing urine

C) Filtering water, glucose, and urea

The presence of which substance in the urine may indicate glomerular injury?

A) Glucose

B) Amino acids

C) Large proteins and blood cells

D) Creatinine

C) Large proteins and blood cells

What hormone produced by the kidneys stimulates red blood cell production and maturation in the bone?

A) Renin

B) Angiotensin

C) Aldosterone

D) Erythropoietin

D) Erythropoietin

Through what system do the kidneys play an important role in blood pressure control?

A) Nervous system

B) Endocrine system

C) Renin-angiotensin system

D) Lymphatic system

C) Renin-angiotensin system

What effect does angiotensin II have on blood vessels and aldosterone release?

A) Vasodilation and decreased aldosterone

B) Vasodilation and increased aldosterone

C) Vasoconstriction and decreased aldosterone

D) Vasoconstriction and increased aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex

D) Vasoconstriction and increased aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex

Retention of water caused by aldosterone leads to which physiological change?

A) Decreased blood volume

B) Increased blood volume and blood pressure

C) Decreased blood pressure

D) Electrolyte imbalance

B) Increased blood volume and blood pressure

The kidneys are involved in converting which vitamin into its active form?

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin B12

C) Vitamin C

D) Vitamin D

D) Vitamin D

Impairment of kidney function can lead to which of the following problems?

A) Increased red blood cell production

B) Low blood pressure

C) Electrolyte imbalances

D) Decreased risk of infection

C) Electrolyte imbalances

Urine moves from the ureters to the bladder through what mechanism?

A) Gravity

B) Diffusion

C) Peristaltic waves

D) Active transport

C) Peristaltic waves

During micturition, what prevents urine from backflowing into the ureters?

A) Gravity

B) Valve-like structures in the ureters

C) Contractions of the bladder compressing the lower ureters

D) Increased abdominal pressure

C) Contractions of the bladder compressing the lower ureters

In males, the bladder rests against which organ?

A) Prostate gland

B) Urethra

C) Rectum

D) Seminal vesicles

C) Rectum

In females, the bladder rests against which structures?

A) Uterus and ovaries

B) Anterior wall of the uterus and vagina

C) Posterior wall of the uterus and rectum

D) Vagina and fallopian tubes

B) Anterior wall of the uterus and vagina

Backflow of urine can increase the risk of what condition?

A) Kidney stone formation

B) Urinary tract infection

C) Urinary retention

D) Urinary incontinence

B) Urinary tract infection

What can obstruction of urine flow by a kidney stone cause?

A) Increased glomerular filtration rate

B) Urinary reflux and distention of the kidney

C) Decreased production of erythropoietin

D) Increased bladder capacity

B) Urinary reflux and distention of the kidney

What term describes the distention of the ureter and pelvis of the kidney due to urine backflow?

A) Cystitis

B) Ureteritis

C) Hydroureter/hydronephrosis

D) Nephritis

C) Hydroureter/hydronephrosis

How does the length of the female urethra compare to the male urethra?

A) Longer

B) Shorter

C) The same length

D) Variable

B) Shorter

The female urethra serves as a passageway for which bodily fluid?

A) Urine only

B) Urine and reproductive fluids

C) Reproductive fluids only

D) Blood and urine

A) Urine only

What is the process of emptying the bladder also known as?

A) Filtration

B) Reabsorption

C) Micturition

D) Secretion

C) Micturition

Centers in which parts of the body control micturition?

A) Kidneys and ureters

B) Bladder and urethra

C) Brain and spinal cord

D) Adrenal glands and pituitary gland

C) Brain and spinal cord

At what approximate bladder volume do most adults experience a strong sensation of urgency to void?

A) 100 to 200 mL

B) 200 to 300 mL

C) 400 to 600 mL

D) 800 to 1000 mL

C) 400 to 600 mL

Problems with infection, irritable bladder, or obstruction can lead to which common urinary elimination issue?

A) Increased urine production

B) The inability to store urine or fully empty the bladder

C) Decreased frequency of urination

D) Increased bladder contractility

B) The inability to store urine or fully empty the bladder

What is the definition of urinary incontinence (UI)?

A) The inability to empty the bladder completely

B) Frequent urination during the night

C) Any involuntary loss of urine

D) Painful urination

C) Any involuntary loss of urine

What characterizes transient urinary incontinence?

A) Loss of continence due to causes outside the urinary tract

B) Involuntary loss of urine related to spinal cord damage

C) Incontinence caused by treatable medical conditions

D) Involuntary leakage of urine with increased abdominal pressure

C) Incontinence caused by treatable medical conditions

Functional incontinence is related to which type of causes?

A) Urinary tract infections

B) Neurological problems

C) Causes outside the urinary tract

D) Bladder outlet obstruction

C) Causes outside the urinary tract

Overflow urinary incontinence is often associated with what conditions?

A) Strong sense of urgency

B) Weak pelvic floor muscles

C) Bladder outlet obstruction or poor bladder emptying

D) Neurological problems

C) Bladder outlet obstruction or poor bladder emptying

Involuntary leakage of small volumes of urine due to weak pelvic floor muscles is characteristic of which type of incontinence?

A) Urge incontinence

B) Overflow incontinence

C) Stress incontinence

D) Reflex incontinence

C) Stress incontinence

An overactive bladder causing a strong sense of urgency is typically associated with which type of incontinence?

A) Functional incontinence

B) Stress incontinence

C) Urge incontinence

D) Overflow incontinence

C) Urge incontinence

Spinal cord damage between C1 and S2 can lead to which type of urinary incontinence?

A) Stress incontinence

B) Urge incontinence

C) Overflow incontinence

D) Reflex urinary incontinence

D) Reflex urinary incontinence

What is urinary retention?

A) Frequent and urgent urination

B) Involuntary loss of urine

C) The inability to empty the bladder partially or completely

D) Painful urination

C) The inability to empty the bladder partially or completely

Acute urinary retention can cause which symptoms?

A) Decreased heart rate

B) Increased appetite

C) Tenderness over the symphysis pubis

D) Decreased blood pressure

C) Tenderness over the symphysis pubis

Chronic urinary retention often has what type of onset?

A) Sudden and severe

B) Rapid

C) Slow and gradual

D) Intermitten

C) Slow and gradual

what is postvoid residual (PVR)?

A) The amount of urine produced by the kidneys in one hour

B) The amount of fluid consumed by the patient

C) The amount of urine left in the bladder after voiding

D) The frequency of urination

C) The amount of urine left in the bladder after voiding

How is PVR typically measured?

A) Urine dipstick

B) Blood test

C) Ultrasonography or straight catheterization

D) Timed urine collection

C) Ultrasonography or straight catheterization

What is bacteriuria?

A) Painful urination

B) Blood in the urine

C) Bacteria in the urine

D) Frequent urination

C) Bacteria in the urine

Asymptomatic bacteriuria is characterized by the presence of bacteria in the urine without which feature?

A) Increased white blood cell count

B) Symptoms of infection

C) Proteinuria

D) Hematuria

B) Symptoms of infection

What is pyelonephritis?

A) Irritation of the bladder

B) A symptomatic upper urinary tract infection

C) Asymptomatic bacteria in the urine

D) Inflammation of the urethra B

B) A symptomatic upper urinary tract infection

Cystitis involves irritation of which part of the urinary system?

A) Ureters

B) Kidneys

C) Bladder

D) Urethra

C) Bladder

Which of the following is a common symptom of cystitis?

A) Polyuria

B) Anuria

C) Suprapubic tenderness

D) Decreased frequency of urination

C) Suprapubic tenderness

What are some nonspecific symptoms that older adults with UTIs might exhibit?

A) Increased energy and appetite

B) Heightened awareness and orientation

C) Delirium, confusion, or falls

D) Elevated body temperature

C) Delirium, confusion, or falls

Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are the most common type of what in acute care hospitals?

A) Surgical site infections

B) Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)

C) Respiratory infections

D) Bloodstream infections

B) Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)

What is a major risk factor for catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

A) Increased fluid intake

B) Frequent ambulation

C) Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter and duration of use

D) Meticulous hand hygiene by the patient

C) Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter and duration of use

Which of the following describes urgency in relation to urinary elimination?

A) Voiding more than 8 times during waking hours

B) Delay in the start of urinary stream

C) An immediate and strong desire to void that is not easily deferred

D) Voiding excessive amounts of urine

C) An immediate and strong desire to void that is not easily deferred

What is the term for voiding more than 8 times during waking hours?

A) Urgency

B) Frequency

C) Hesitancy

D) Polyuria

B) Frequency

What is hesitancy in urinary elimination?

A) Leakage of small amounts of urine

B) Voiding at night

C) Delay in the start of urinary stream

D) Painful urination

C) Delay in the start of urinary stream

Voiding excessive amounts of urine is referred to as what?

A) Oliguria

B) Nocturia

C) Polyuria

D) Dribbling

C) Polyuria

Diminished urinary output in relation to fluid intake is known as?

A) Polyuria

B) Nocturia

C) Oliguria

D) Hematuria

C) Oliguria

What is nocturia?

A) Painful urination

B) Getting out of bed at night with a need to urinate

C) Blood in the urine

D) Inability to void

B) Getting out of bed at night with a need to urinate

Leakage of small amounts of urine despite voluntary control of micturition is called?

A) Urgency

B) Frequency

C) Dribbling

D) Retention c

C) Dribbling

What term describes bloody urine?

A) Polyuria

B) Oliguria

C) Hematuria

D) Nocturia

C) Hematuria

Suddenly being unable to void when the bladder is full or overfull is known as?

A) Chronic retention

B) Urinary suppression

C) Acute retention

D) Reflex incontinence

C) Acute retention

What is a continent urinary reservoir typically made from?

A) Ureter

B) Bladder

C) Colon

D) Ileum

C) Colon

How is urine emptied from a continent urinary reservoir?

A) Through a stoma with continuous drainage

B) Via the urethra using the Valsalva technique

C) By catheterization through a stoma

D) Through peristaltic waves

C) By catheterization through a stoma

An ileal conduit is what type of urinary diversion?

A) Continent

B) Temporary

C) Incontinent

D) Reversible

C) Incontinent

In an ileal conduit, the ureters are transplanted into which part of the intestine?

A) Colon

B) Duodenum

C) Ileum

D) Jejunum

C) Ileum

How is urine collected from an ileal conduit?

A) Intermittent catheterization

B) Voluntary urination

C) A pouch (ostomy appliance) over the stoma

D) A nephrostomy tube

C) A pouch (ostomy appliance) over the stoma

What is an orthotopic neobladder?

A) A continent urinary diversion using the colon

B) An incontinent urinary diversion using the ileum

C) A continent urinary diversion that replaces the bladder

D) A temporary urinary drainage system

C) A continent urinary diversion that replaces the bladder

How does a patient typically void with a neobladder?

A) Through a stoma

B) Using intermittent catheterization

C) Through the urethra using a Valsalva technique

D) Via a drainage bag

C) Through the urethra using a Valsalva technique

Nephrostomy tubes are inserted to drain which part of the kidney? A) Ureter

B) Bladder

C) Renal pelvis

D) Glomerulus

C) Renal pelvis

When are nephrostomy tubes typically placed?

A) To collect urine for sterile specimens

B) When the ureter is obstructed

C) To manage urinary incontinence

D) After bladder surgery

B) When the ureter is obstructed

At what age do most children develop a well-developed neurological system to control micturition?

A) 6 to 12 months

B) 1 to 2 years

C) 2 to 3 years

D) 4 to 5 years

C) 2 to 3 years

What is nocturnal enuresis?

A) Frequent urination during the day

B) Bedwetting at night without waking

C) Painful urination

D) Involuntary loss of urine during the day

B) Bedwetting at night without waking

How does the urine concentration of infants and young children compare to adults?

A) More concentrated

B) Less concentrated

C) The same concentration

D) Varies with fluid intake only

B) Less concentrated

What urinary change is common during early and late pregnancy?

A) Urinary retention

B) Decreased urine production

C) Urinary frequency

D) Painful urination

C) Urinary frequency

What factors contribute to increased urine production during pregnancy?

A) Decreased hormonal levels

B) Increased fluid intake only

C) Hormonal changes and pressure of the fetus on the bladder

D) Increased bladder capacity

C) Hormonal changes and pressure of the fetus on the bladder

While normal aging increases the risk of urinary issues, are these changes the direct cause of bladder dysfunction?

A) Yes, aging directly causes bladder dysfunction.

B) No, aging increases risk but is not the direct cause.

C) Only in women.

D) Only in men

B) No, aging increases risk but is not the direct cause.

What is the most common type of urinary incontinence in elderly men and women?

A) Stress urinary incontinence

B) Functional urinary incontinence

C) Urgency urinary incontinence

D) Overflow urinary incontinence

C) Urgency urinary incontinence

What is a common reason for urgency urinary incontinence in elderly men?

A) Atrophic urethral mucosa

B) Weak pelvic floor muscles

C) Prostate hypertrophy

D) Decreased fluid intake

C) Prostate hypertrophy

What is a common reason for urgency urinary incontinence in elderly women?

A) Prostate hypertrophy

B) Increased estrogenization

C) Atrophic urethral mucosa

D) Increased bladder contractility

C) Atrophic urethral mucosa

Why might age-related urinary incontinence remain untreated in the elderly?

A) Lack of awareness of treatment options

B) It is always easily managed with lifestyle changes

C) The condition is sometimes considered a normal part of aging

D) Older adults are less likely to report urinary issues

C) The condition is sometimes considered a normal part of aging

What urinary issue is an increased risk in older adults due to decreased ability to delay voiding and potential loss of bladder contractility?

A) Urinary frequency

B) Urinary incontinence

C) Urinary retention

D) Nocturia

C) Urinary retention

Decreased estrogenization in older women can increase the risk of which condition?

A) Urinary retention

B) Urinary tract infection

C) Stress incontinence

D) Overflow incontinence

B) Urinary tract infection

What is polypharmacy?

A) The use of a single medication for multiple conditions

B) The use of multiple medications

C) The study of how drugs affect the urinary system

D) Medication adherence in older adults

B) The use of multiple medications

Polypharmacy in older adults can impact urinary elimination by affecting what?

A) Kidney filtration rate only

B) The ability of the bladder to hold urine or adequately empty

C) Ureteral peristalsis

D) Hormone production by the kidneys

B) The ability of the bladder to hold urine or adequately empty

Which of the following is a key nursing responsibility related to urinary elimination?

A) Ordering diagnostic tests

B) Prescribing medications

C) Infection control and hygiene

D) Performing surgical procedures

C) Infection control and hygiene

Nurses should encourage patients to do what regarding the urge to void?

A) Ignore it to increase bladder capacity

B) Delay voiding for as long as possible

C) Void when they have the urge

D) Void on a strict schedule

C) Void when they have the urge

When catheterization is being considered, what should nurses suggest first?

A) Inserting an indwelling catheter immediately

B) Surgical alternatives

C) Noninvasive alternatives

D) Medication trials

C) Noninvasive alternatives

What type of data is collected during the health assessment for urinary elimination?

A) Subjective data only

B) Objective data only

C) Both subjective and objective data

D) Laboratory results only

C) Both subjective and objective data

Which of the following is an example of subjective data related to urinary elimination?

A) Urine output volume

B) Patient report of pain during urination

C) Appearance of the perineal skin

D) Results of a bladder scan

B) Patient report of pain during urination

Which of the following is an example of objective data related to urinary elimination?

A) Patient's feeling of incomplete emptying

B) Frequency of urination reported by the patient

C) Urine color and odor

D) Patient's history of UTIs

C) Urine color and odor

What is a KUB?

A) A type of catheter

B) A diagnostic test involving intravenous dye

C) An abdominal roentgenogram (plain film of kidney, ureter, bladder)

D) A surgical procedure to remove kidney stone

C) An abdominal roentgenogram (plain film of kidney, ureter, bladder)

Which diagnostic test uses sound waves to visualize the renal bladder?

A) Cystoscopy

B) Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

C) Ultrasound

D) CAT Scan (CT)

C) Ultrasound

Which diagnostic procedure involves direct visualization of the bladder and urethra with a scope?

A) Ultrasound

B) IVP

C) Cystoscopy

D) KUB

C) Cystoscopy

Which of the following is a nursing diagnosis related to urinary elimination?

A) Risk for falls

B) Acute pain

C) Urinary retention

D) Impaired mobility

C) Urinary retention

When writing goals for a patient with a urinary elimination problem, what should nurses consider?

A) The hospital's policies only

B) The healthcare provider's preferences only

C) The priorities for the patient

D) Standardized care plans only

C) The priorities for the patient

What is the primary purpose of promoting complete bladder emptying?

A) To increase urine output

B) To prevent urinary tract infections

C) To improve kidney function

D) To manage urinary incontinence

B) To prevent urinary tract infections

Peri care should be performed prior to which urinary procedure?

A) Urine specimen collection

B) Bladder scan

C) Catheter insertion

D) Measurement of postvoid residual

C) Catheter insertion

What is the definition of urinary catheterization?

A) Surgical removal of the bladder

B) Placement of a tube through the urethra into the bladder to drain urine

C) External collection of urine with a pouch

D) Stimulation of bladder contractions

B) Placement of a tube through the urethra into the bladder to drain urine

CAUTIs are a significant healthcare concern because they are a leading cause of what?

A) Medication errors

B) Surgical complications

C) Healthcare-associated infections

D) Patient falls

C) Healthcare-associated infections

Urinary catheterization must be performed using which technique?

A) Clean technique

B) Aseptic technique

C) Sterile technique

D) Standard precautions

C) Sterile technique

What should a nurse do if a patient reports sudden pain during inflation of a catheter balloon?

A) Continue inflating slowly

B) Deflate the balloon and remove the catheter immediately

C) Stop inflation, allow fluid to return to the syringe, advance the catheter, and reinflate

D) Administer pain medication and continue inflating

C) Stop inflation, allow fluid to return to the syringe, advance the catheter, and reinflate

Which of the following is a purpose of urinary catheterization?

A) To increase urine production

B) To treat urinary incontinence

C) To relieve retention

D) To stimulate kidney function

C) To relieve retention

What type of catheter is used for intermittent bladder drainage?

A) Foley catheter

B) Condom catheter

C) Straight catheter

D) Suprapubic catheter

C) Straight catheter

What is a Foley catheter?

A) An external urinary collection device

B) An intermittent catheter

C) An indwelling catheter with a balloon to keep it in place

D) A catheter inserted surgically into the bladder

C) An indwelling catheter with a balloon to keep it in place

What type of Foley catheter has a third lumen for continuous bladder irrigation?

A) Standard two-way Foley

B) Suprapubic Foley

C) Triple lumen Foley

D) Condom catheter

C) Triple lumen Foley

Where is a suprapubic catheter inserted?

A) Through the urethra

B) Through the abdominal wall above the symphysis pubis

C) Into the renal pelvis

D) Into the ureter

B) Through the abdominal wall above the symphysis pubis

What should never be used to secure a condom catheter?

A) Elastic tape

B) Paper tape

C) Regular adhesive tape

D) Cloth tape

C) Regular adhesive tape

Where should a urinary drainage bag be kept in relation to the level of the bladder?

A) Above the level of the bladder

B) At the same level as the bladder

C) Below the level of the bladder

D) Attached to the patient's leg

C) Below the level of the bladder

What is a urine hat?

A) A type of urinary catheter

B) A collection device placed in the toilet to collect urine

C) A bag used for indwelling catheters

D) A device used to measure postvoid residual

B) A collection device placed in the toilet to collect urine

After removing an indwelling catheter, what should the nurse monitor and record?

A) Blood pressure and heart rate only

B) Patient's appetite and activity level

C) Time and amount of first voiding

D) Bowel sounds

C) Time and amount of first voiding

When should postvoid residual (PVR) be measured after a patient voids?

A) Immediately after voiding

B) 30 to 60 minutes after voiding

C) 5 to 15 minutes after a patient voids

D) 2 to 3 hours after voiding

C) 5 to 15 minutes after a patient voids