NCM 112 – Pre-operative Nursing Care & Surgical Fundamentals

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering historical context, terminology, classifications, legal aspects, risk factors, assessments, interventions, and medications relevant to pre-operative nursing care and surgical management.

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65 Terms

1
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During which historical period was ether first used publicly as an anesthetic, and by whom?

In 1846 (19th century) Dr. William Morton, a dentist in Boston, publicly used ether as an anesthetic.

2
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What three chronological phases are encompassed by the term “perioperative”?

Pre-operative, intra-operative, and post-operative phases.

3
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Define the pre-operative period in perioperative nursing.

The time from the patient’s decision for surgical intervention until transfer to the operating-room table.

4
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What does the surgical root word “nephro” refer to?

The kidney.

5
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Which suffix means “surgical removal of” an organ or structure?

-ectomy.

6
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Give the meaning of the term 'cystoscopy'.

Direct visualization (scopy) of the bladder (cysto) with a scope.

7
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What four major pathologic processes commonly require surgical intervention?

Obstruction, perforation, erosion, and tumors.

8
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Which surgical classification according to purpose involves removal of an organ to treat a disease condition?

Curative (ablative) surgery.

9
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Provide two examples of reconstructive surgery.

Plastic surgery after severe burns and breast reconstruction (mammoplasty).

10
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What differentiates minor from major surgery in terms of risk?

Minor surgery is short with few serious complications; major surgery is extensive, prolonged, with greater blood loss and risk to vital organs.

11
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Within how many hours must urgent (imperative) surgery generally be performed?

Within 24–48 hours.

12
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Name two examples of elective surgeries.

Simple hernia repair and non-bleeding hemorrhoid excision.

13
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List three physiologic effects of surgical stress on the client.

Elicits the HPA stress response (↑ catecholamines), lowers immune defense, and disrupts vascular and organ functions (e.g., paralytic ileus).

14
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Why is smoking a significant surgical risk factor?

Tar and nicotine impair alveolar gas exchange, decreasing oxygenation needed during and after anesthesia.

15
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Which two age groups are considered highest risk for surgery?

Very young children and the elderly.

16
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What are the four legal criteria that make an informed consent valid?

Voluntary, competent subject, adequately informed, and obtained before sedation.

17
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Who is legally responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and alternatives to the patient?

The surgeon (primary provider).

18
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In a life-threatening emergency with no available family, may a surgeon operate without consent?

Yes; every effort must be made to contact family, but the physician may operate to save life.

19
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Name three common patient fears that can produce pre-operative anxiety.

Fear of the unknown, fear of death, and fear of anesthesia or disfigurement.

20
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State two nursing interventions to reduce pre-operative anxiety.

Allow verbalization of fears and provide thorough pre-operative teaching (e.g., what to expect post-op).

21
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Why should smokers ideally stop 4–8 weeks before surgery?

To improve pulmonary function and wound healing, thereby reducing peri-operative complications.

22
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Which laboratory values are part of a routine Complete Blood Count (CBC) ordered pre-operatively?

Hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelet count, and white blood cell count.

23
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What minimum NPO fasting time is recommended for clear liquids before anesthesia (ASA guideline)?

At least 2 hours.

24
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Explain the purpose of bowel preparation before abdominal surgery.

To empty and cleanse intestines for better visualization, reduce contamination, and prevent trauma.

25
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Which hair removal method is preferred immediately before surgery to reduce infection risk?

Clipping (shaving is discouraged by CDC unless absolutely necessary).

26
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List two vital nursing actions immediately after administering ‘on-call to OR’ pre-anesthetic medications.

Keep the patient in bed with side rails up and ensure the call light is within reach.

27
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Give one example of each category of common pre-operative medication: benzodiazepine, opioid, and anti-emetic.

Midazolam (benzodiazepine), morphine (opioid), and metoclopramide (anti-emetic).

28
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What does the acronym TURP stand for in surgical procedures?

Trans-Urethral Resection of the Prostate.

29
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Why must corticosteroid use be reported in the pre-operative assessment?

Chronic steroids risk adrenal insufficiency and impair wound healing, requiring peri-operative stress dosing.

30
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What diagnostic test is mandatory for patients older than 40 before major surgery to assess cardiac status?

An electrocardiogram (ECG) and often cardiopulmonary clearance.

31
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Identify three medications that may increase surgical bleeding risk and thus are reviewed pre-operatively.

Anticoagulants, NSAIDs, and MAO inhibitors.

32
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Which two organs are crucial for metabolizing anesthetic agents and drugs given during surgery?

The liver and the kidneys.

33
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How is anxiety physiologically manifested that nurses should monitor pre-operatively?

Elevated pulse and respiratory rates, inability to concentrate, restlessness, or insomnia.

34
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What teaching should be provided regarding coughing and deep breathing exercises?

Instruct patient to splint the incision, inhale deeply, cough to clear secretions, and repeat regularly post-operatively.

35
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Describe the correct patient positioning when transported on a stretcher to the OR.

Feet first, side rails up, to enhance safety and minimize dizziness or nausea.

36
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Which laboratory values assess renal function before surgery?

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels.

37
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State two indicators that would prompt postponement of elective surgery related to respiratory status.

Active respiratory infection or uncontrolled asthma/COPD exacerbation.

38
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What is the purpose of an indwelling urinary catheter ordered pre-operatively for long abdominal surgeries?

To keep the bladder empty, monitor urine output, and prevent bladder injury.

39
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Which root word refers to the uterus in surgical terminology?

Hystero-.

40
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What does the suffix “-plasty” indicate in a surgical term?

Plastic repair or reconstruction.

41
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Define 'colostomy'.

Creation of an opening (-ostomy) of the colon onto the abdominal surface for fecal diversion.

42
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Why is obesity a significant intra-operative risk factor?

Fats obstruct airways, increase surgical time, impair wound healing, and complicate positioning.

43
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Which electrolyte imbalances are most critical to correct before anesthesia?

Sodium (Na⁺) and potassium (K⁺) imbalances.

44
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What coping strategy involves focusing on a pleasant scene to reduce surgical anxiety?

Guided imagery.

45
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Name two possible cardiovascular complications during or after surgery in patients with heart disease.

Dysrhythmias and myocardial infarction.

46
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Under what circumstances may an emancipated minor sign their own surgical consent?

If legally emancipated, married, or the parent of a child undergoing an invasive procedure.

47
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What are two key items that must accompany the patient to the OR besides the consent form?

Completed pre-operative checklist and all pertinent laboratory/diagnostic reports.

48
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Which endocrine disorder increases the risk of thyrotoxicosis during surgery if uncontrolled?

Hyperthyroidism.

49
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How long should a patient fast from meat or fried foods before anesthesia, according to ASA guidelines?

At least 8 hours.

50
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What is the role of H2-receptor blockers as pre-operative medication?

To reduce gastric acidity and decrease risk of aspiration pneumonia.

51
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Why must contact lenses be removed before anesthesia?

To prevent corneal injury and because eyelid reflexes are absent under anesthesia.

52
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Which suffix means 'instrument for cutting'?

-tome.

53
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What does 'salpingectomy' refer to?

Surgical removal (-ectomy) of a fallopian tube (salping-).

54
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Identify two signs that a patient may be experiencing alcohol withdrawal peri-operatively.

Agitation/tremors and hallucinations 48–72 hours after last intake.

55
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What is the standard nursing action if a patient has unresolved major questions about surgery while completing consent?

Contact the surgeon to provide further explanation before the patient signs.

56
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List two respiratory complications that good post-operative deep-breathing exercises aim to prevent.

Atelectasis and pneumonia.

57
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For what reason might a GIA stapler be used during abdominal surgery?

To create a gastrointestinal anastomosis quickly and securely.

58
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What does the abbreviation 'TAH BSO' describe in gynecologic surgery?

Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.

59
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Explain why the first and third trimesters of pregnancy carry greater surgical risk.

First trimester: teratogenic risk; third trimester: increased uterine size and risk of preterm labor.

60
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Which laboratory tests evaluate coagulation status pre-operatively?

Prothrombin Time (PT), Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), and Activated PTT.

61
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After pre-operative teaching, what two actions indicate the patient is ready for surgery?

The patient verbalizes understanding of the procedure and signs the informed consent.

62
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What intra-operative advantage does clipping hair (vs. shaving) provide?

Reduces skin micro-abrasions and lowers surgical site infection rates.

63
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Which opioid-sparring technique can be taught pre-operatively to aid post-operative pain control?

Splinting the incision while coughing or moving.

64
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Why should dentures be removed prior to anesthesia induction?

To prevent airway obstruction or damage to dentures during intubation.

65
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What is the primary goal of turning the patient side-to-side every two hours post-operatively?

To improve circulation, prevent pressure ulcers, and allow skin cooling.