Windows Server Exam 4

Which of the following is an example of long-term storage? (Choose two.)

a. Magnetic tape

b. CPU cache

c. SSD

d. RAM

a. Magnetic tape, c. SSD

Magnetic tape stores data on flexible media that do not require electrical power to maintain data. SSD

stores data on flash media that maintain the data after the power is removed. Both are long-term

storage because they can maintain data without electrical power. CPU cache and RAM are short-term

storage because data stored using these technologies is lost when power is removed.

Which of the following is true about an SSD?

a. Uses magnetic platters

b. Has no moving parts

c. Less expensive than an HDD

d. Uses EPROM

b. Has no moving parts

A solid state drive (SSD) works like RAM in that it has no moving parts; data is stored in microchips

called flash memory, not EPROM. A traditional hard drive has magnetic platters. An SSD is more

expensive than an HDD with a comparable amount of storage.

Which of the following is an example of why a server uses long-term storage? (Choose three.)

a. Page file

b. Virtual machines

c. Working memory

d. Documents

a. Page file, b. Virtual machines, d. Documents

A server uses long-term storage such as a hard disk or SSD for the page file, virtual machine files, and

documents. Working memory is short-term storage such as RAM.

You want shared network storage that’s easy to set up and geared toward file sharing with several filesharing protocols. What should you consider buying?

a. SAN

b. DAS

c. NAS

d. RAID

c. NAS

Network attached storage (NAS) devices often support multiple protocols such as SMB, FTP, and

NFS. A storage area network (SAN) usually supports a single high-speed protocol using a dedicated

network; direct attached storage (DAS) is typically a hard drive or SSD that uses a local storage

controller. RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration.

You have four servers that need access to shared storage because you’re configuring them in a cluster.

Which storage solution should you consider for this application?

a. NAS

b. SAN

c. SCSI

d. DAS

b. SAN

A storage area network (SAN) is ideally suited to support a server cluster because it provides highspeed access to block-level shared storage. A NAS provides file-level shared storage, which is not

ideal for a server cluster. SCSI is a disk interface; DAS is a locally attached storage device and is not

designed for cluster storage.

You have installed a new disk and created a volume on it. What should you do before you can store files on

it?

a. Format it.

b. Partition it.

c. Initialize it.

d. Erase it.

a. Format it.

Before a volume can be used to store files, a file system must be created using a process called

formatting.

Which disk interface technology transfers data over a parallel bus?

a. SATA

b. USB

c. SAS

d. SCSI

d. SCSI

SATA, USB, and SAS are all serial bus technologies. SCSI is a parallel bus disk interface.

What’s created automatically when you install Windows Server 2022 on a system with a disk drive that has

never had an OS installed on it before?

a. System volume

b. Dynamic disk

c. GPT

d. Extended partition

a. System volume

The system volume contains files the computer needs to find and load the Windows OS.

What type of volumes or partitions can be created on a basic disk? (Choose two.)

a. Spanned volume

b. Striped partition

c. Extended partition

d. Simple volume

c. Extended partition, d. Simple volume

A basic disk can accommodate only basic volumes, called simple volumes. A simple volume is a disk

partition residing on only one disk; it can’t span multiple disks or be used to create a RAID volume. A

basic disk can accommodate two partition types: primary partitions and extended partitions.

Which of the following is true about GPT disks?

a. They support a maximum volume size of 2 TB.

b. GPT is the default option when initializing a disk in Disk Management.

c. They use CRC protection for the partition table.

d. You can’t convert a GPT disk to MBR.

c. They use CRC protection for the partition table.

GPT partitions offer improved reliability in the form of partition table replication (a backup copy of the

partition table) and Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) protection of the partition table.

You have a server with Windows Server 2022 installed on Disk 0, a basic disk. You’re using the server to

store users’ documents. You have two more disks that you can install in the server. What should you do if

you want to provide fault tolerance for users’ documents?

a. Convert Disk 0 to dynamic. Create a striped volume using Disk 0, Disk 1, and Disk 2.

b. Create a RAID 1 volume from Disk 1 and Disk 2.

c. Convert the new disks to GPT. Create a spanned volume using Disk 1 and Disk 2.

d. Create a RAID 5 volume from Disk 0, Disk 1, and Disk 2.

b. Create a RAID 1 volume from Disk 1 and Disk 2.

A mirrored volume (or RAID 1 volume) uses space from two dynamic disks and provides fault

tolerance. Data written to one disk is duplicated, or mirrored, to the second disk. If one disk fails, the other disk has a good copy of the data, and the system can continue to operate until the failed disk is

replaced.

You need a disk system that provides the best performance for a new application that frequently reads and

writes data to the disk. You aren’t concerned about disk fault tolerance because the data will be backed up

each day; performance is the main concern. What type of volume arrangement should you use?

a. Spanned volume

b. RAID 1 volume

c. RAID 0 volume

d. RAID 5 volume

c. RAID 0 volume

RAID 0 volumes, also called striped volumes, provide the best performance because they distribute

data across two or more disks. RAID 0 volumes do not provide fault tolerance. Spanned volumes use

two or more disks but data is not striped across disks, so there is no performance advantage. RAID 1

and RAID 5 volumes provide fault tolerance but performance is slightly decreased when compared

with RAID 0 volumes.

You need to protect sensitive files from unauthorized users even if the disk is stolen. Which of the

following features should you use, and on what file system?

a. EFS, NTFS

b. Disk compression, ReFS

c. Quotas, NTFS

d. Shadow copies, ReFS

a. EFS, NTFS

Encrypting File System (EFS) allows users to encrypt files. It is supported on NTFS.

You come across a file with a .vhd extension on your server’s hard disk. What should you do to see this

file’s contents?

a. Right-click the file and click Open.

b. Open the file in Notepad.

c. Burn the file to a DVD.

d. Mount the file.

d. Mount the file.

A virtual hard disk (.vhd) file represents a virtual hard disk for a virtual machine. A VHD can be

mounted in the Windows file system and browsed like a folder using File Explorer

Which type of virtual disk would you create if you needed to use the virtual disk in a production

environment that required fast disk performance?

a. Dynamically expanding

b. Thin provisioned

c. Fixed size

d. Extended FAT

c. Fixed size

A fixed-size virtual disk provides the best performance because additional space doesn’t need to be

allocated as data is written to it. Dynamically expanding and thin provisioned mean the same thing;

space on the physical storage device must be allocated as data is written to it. Extended FAT is a file

system, not a virtual disk type.

Which of the following is a UNIX native file-sharing protocol that is supported by the Windows Server File

and Storage Services role?

a. SMB

b. FTP

c. TFTP

d. NFS

d. NFS

Network File System (NFS) is the UNIX native file-sharing protocol.

Which SMB share option should you enable if you don’t want users to see files to which they don’t have at

least Read permission?

a. Offline files

b. Hidden shares

c. BranchCache

d. Access-based enumeration

: d. Access-based enumeration

Access-based enumeration (ABE) prevents users from seeing files to which they don’t have read

access. Without ABE enabled, users can see the file name in a browse list (such as in File Explorer),

but they cannot open the file.

Which of the following commands or cmdlets can be used to list the shares on the computer? (Choose two.)

a. New-SmbShare

b. Net share

c. Get-SmbShare

d. Net disk

b. Net share, c. Get-SmbShare

The Net share and Get-SmbShare cmdlets will list the shares on a Windows computer.

Which administrative share does Active Directory use for replication?

a. NETLOGON

b. SYSVOL

c. Admin$

d. IPC$

b. SYSVOL

The SYSVOL share is used to replicate Active Directory information and Group Policy files.

Which of the following is part of a file system object’s security settings and defines the settings for auditing

access to an object?

a. DACL

b. ACE

c. ACL

d. SACL

d. SACL

The system access control list (SACL) contains information about object access auditing. The

discretionary access control list (DACL) contains access control entries (ACEs) that define who has

access to a file. ACL is an acronym for access control list.

Which of the following is not a standard NTFS permission?

a. Read & execute

b. Change

c. Write

d. List folder contents

b. Change

The Change permission is a Windows sharing permission; Modify is the equivalent NTFS permission.

Read & execute, Write, and List folder contents are other standard NTFS permissions.

In which of the following ways can a user become a file’s owner? (Choose three.)

a. Take ownership of the file.

b. Create the file.

c. Belong to the File Owner special identity.

d. Be assigned as the owner by an administrator.

a. Take ownership of the file., b. Create the file., d. Be assigned as the owner by an

administrator.

There is no File Owner special identity. You can become the owner of a file by taking ownership of it

if you have Full Control permission, if you create the file, or if an administrator account assigns you as

the owner.

Which of the following NTFS permissions allows a user to read, modify, delete, and create files, but does

not allow the user to change a file’s permissions?

a. Read & execute

b. Modify

c. Write

d. Full control

b. Modify

The Modify permission allows users to perform all actions on a file except changing its permissions,

which requires Full control.

The Distributed File System role service provides which of the following? (Choose three.)

a. Access to files across the network

b. Replacement for regular backups

c. Copies of files created automatically for redundancy

d. Fault-tolerant access to files

: a. Access to files across the network, c. Copies of files created automatically for redundancy,

d. Fault-tolerant access to files

Distributed File System is not a replacement for regular backups of files. If a file is deleted,

erroneously changed, or corrupted, a backup is required to restore the original file.

Which of the following is true about DFS namespaces?

a. Standalone namespaces always use more bandwidth.

b. Domain-based namespaces remain regardless of the server status where the share resides.

c. Domain-based namespaces include the current server name for faster name resolution.

d. Standalone namespaces can’t be replicated.

b. Domain-based namespaces remain regardless of the server status where the share resides.

Folders added to a namespace can be described as which of the following?

a. Copies of existing folders

b. Copies of existing folders that are initially empty

c. Pointers to existing shared folders

d. Copied to a staging area automatically

: c. Pointers to existing shared folders

A folder in a DFS namespace does not contain the actual files; it is a link, or pointer, to a folder on

another file system.

In DFS, what are the differences between Windows Server 2008 mode and Windows Server 2000 mode?

a. Server 2008 mode supports 15,000 folders and access-based enumeration; Server 2000 mode

supports 5000 folders.

b. Server 2008 mode supports 75,000 folders and Server 2000 mode supports 10,000 folders.

c. There are no differences a user can see.

d. Server 2008 mode supports 50,000 folders and access-based enumeration; Server 2000 mode

supports 5000 folders.

: d. Server 2008 mode supports 50,000 folders and access-based enumeration; Server 2000

mode supports 5000 folders.

Where does a referral originate when a client accesses a DFS namespace?

a. From the namespace server

b. From the domain controller

c. From the namespace server for a standalone type and from the domain controller for a domainbased type

d. From a cached copy of referrals on the server where the share is located

c. From the namespace server for a standalone type and from the domain controller for a

domain-based type

Referrals originate from the namespace server for standalone DFS implementations and from the

domain controller for domain-based implementations.

Which of the following BranchCache modes should you install if you don’t want to use a dedicated server

in a branch office?

a. Distributed cache mode

b. Tiered cache mode

c. Single cache mode

d. Hosted cache mode

a. Distributed cache mode

Distributed cache mode is the best solution for small branch offices when having a dedicated server is

neither practical nor desirable. When using BranchCache in distributed cache mode, no extra

equipment and no additional resources or personnel are necessary for server maintenance.

Which mode should you configure if you want to support multiple subnets?

a. Hosted cache mode

b. Distributed cache mode

c. Branch cache mode

d. Tiered cache mode

: a. Hosted cache mode

A larger branch office might have more than one IP subnet. Distributed cache mode works only in a

single subnet, so files cached by computers on one subnet aren’t available to computers on another

subnet. Hosted cached mode works across subnets, so files cached by a server on one subnet are

available to client computers on all subnets.

Which of the following roles or protocols can benefit from using the BranchCache role service? (Choose

three.)

a. File Server

b. Web Server

c. Network File System

d. BITS

a. File Server, b. Web Server, d. BITS

BranchCache supports content stored on Windows Server 2008 R2 and later servers running the

following roles and protocols: File Server, Web Server (IIS), and Background Intelligent Transfer

Service (BITS).

Which of the following scenarios would benefit from selecting a distributed cache mode over a hosted

cache mode? (Choose two.)

a. Small branch office with two dedicated servers

b. Small branch office with no dedicated server

c. Additional resources and personnel are not available

d. Unlimited resources and multiple servers are available

b. Small branch office with no dedicated server, c. Additional resources and personnel are not

available

Hosted cache mode requires a dedicated server and usually requires knowledgeable personnel to set up

and manage the server. If these resources are not available, distributed cache mode is the best choice.

What are the two types of quotas you can create with File Server Resource Manager?

a. Hard and soft

b. Hard and notify

c. Limit and notify

d. Maximum and minimum

a. Hard and soft

FSRM supports both hard and soft quotas. Hard quotas prevent users from saving files if their files in

the target folder already meet or exceed the quota limit. Soft quotas alert users when they have

exceeded the quota but don’t prevent users from saving files.

What are the two types of file screens you can create with File Server Resource Manager?

a. Hard and soft

b. Active and passive

c. Active and notify

d. Restrict and notify

: b. Active and passive

There are two types of file screens. Active screening prevents users from saving unauthorized files,

and passive screening simply monitors and notifies when unauthorized files are saved. Exceptions can

be defined to allow special cases, such as a video presentation that needs to be in a central location.

A file screen is used to do which of the following? (Choose two.)

a. Limit access to certain types of files.

b. Screen files for malware and viruses.

c. Analyze file use and restrict use to maximize network bandwidth.

d. Send a notification about access to certain types of files.

a. Limit access to certain types of files., d. Send a notification about access to certain types of

files.

File screens can limit access to certain types of files based on the file extension. File screens can also

send a notification when unauthorized files are saved.

You see something named “primordial” in File and Storage Services. What can you do with it?

a. Create a storage pool.

b. Create a virtual disk.

c. Format it.

d. Create a new volume.

a. Create a storage pool.

Storage Spaces refers to the collection of disks available to create storage pools as the primordial pool.

You will see the primordial pool in File and Storage Services

What type of storage layout does Storage Spaces support? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Simple space

b. Mirror space

c. Parity space

d. Striped space

a. Simple space, b. Mirror space, c. Parity space

Storage Spaces supports the following layout types: simple space, mirror space, and parity space.

Striped space is not a valid layout type

Which of the following is a feature in Storage Spaces that combines the speed of SSDs with the low cost

and capacity of HDDs?

a. JBOD

b. Thin provisioning

c. Storage tiering

d. Resilient spaces

c. Storage tiering

Storage tiering combines the speed of SSDs with the low cost and high capacity of HDDs. You can

add SSDs to a storage pool with HDDs, and Windows keeps the most frequently accessed data on the

faster SSD disks while moving less frequently accessed data to HDDs.

Which Windows Server storage feature finds data that exists on a volume multiple times and reduces it to a

single instance?

a. Disk quotas

b. Storage tiering

c. Fixed provisioning

d. Data deduplication

d. Data deduplication

Data deduplication is a technology that reduces the amount of storage necessary to store an

organization’s data. Data deduplication (or dedup, for short) actually consists of multiple techniques

for reducing storage requirements, including data compression, which transforms a series of repeated

data bytes to just a few bytes, and deduplication, which reduces multiple copies of a file or data block

to a single instance of the file or data block.

Which of the following uses dynamically expanding storage?

a. Thin provisioning

b. Primordial pools

c. Parity volumes

d. Resilient File System

a. Thin provisioning

Thin provisioning uses dynamically expanding disks so that you can provision a large volume, even if

you have the physical storage for a volume only half the size.

Which of the following refers to the number of physical disks a virtual disk is using and must be considered

when you add space to an existing virtual disk?

a. Parity volumes

b. Columns

c. Volumes

d. Virtual disk

b. Columns

To add space to an existing virtual disk, you’ll need to add as many physical disks as the virtual disk is

currently using. The number of physical disks a virtual disk is using is referred to as columns.

Which of the following PowerShell cmdlets allows an administrator to replace a failed disk in a storage

pool?

a. Get-PhysicalDisk

b. Remove-PhysicalDisk

c. Add-VirtualDisk

d. Add-PhysicalDisk

Answer: d. Add-PhysicalDisk

The Add-PhysicalDisk cmdlet is used to add a new disk to a storage pool.

When you add a physical disk to a storage space, which of the following are allocation types that determine

how the new disk will be used? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Automatic

b. Manual

c. Virtual

d. Hot Spare

a. Automatic, b. Manual, d. Hot Spare

The three allocation types for physical disks in a storage space are Automatic, Manual, and Hot Spare.

What feature in Windows Server allows Storage Spaces to place copies of data on separate enclosures,

ensuring that if an entire disk enclosure fails, the data is maintained?

a. Secondary volumes

b. Enclosure awareness

c. Disk awareness

d. Virtual replacement

b. Enclosure awareness

Enclosure awareness is a resiliency feature of Storage Spaces that associates each copy of file data

with a particular JBOD enclosure so that if an enclosure goes offline, the data is retained in another

enclosure.

Which of the following physical disk arrangements allows you to set up a tiered storage configuration?

a. Two SSDs

b. Three SSDs

c. Two HDDs

d. One SSD and two HDDs

d. One SSD and two HDDs

Tiered storage requires a mix of HDDs and SSDs, typically with a 4-to-1 or 5-to-1 ratio of HDD disk

space to SSD disk space.

Which of the following is a valid disk provisioning option when configuring storage tiers?

a. Virtual provisioning

b. Thin provisioning

c. Fixed provisioning

d. Set provisioning

c. Fixed provisioning

Storage tiers require fixed provisioning; you can’t use thin provisioning.

With respect to data deduplication, where does Windows Server place a single instance of duplicated data?

a. Chunk store

b. Disk store

c. Deduplication file

d. Dedup folder

a. Chunk store

The deduplication process scans the volume looking for files that are candidates for deduplication.

Files are organized into variably sized chunks. A single instance of each duplicate chunk is placed into

a chunk store; you have the option of compressing the chunk.

After installing data deduplication, which of the following tools allows you to run a test to determine

whether a specific storage scenario would benefit from data deduplication without enabling it on your

volume?

a. DDVol.exe

b. File manager

c. DDPEval.exe

d. SYSEval.exe

c. DDPEval.exe

The tool will evaluate any volumes or network shares you specify before you actually enable

deduplication. This tool should be run on a test dataset.

Which of the following files will not be processed by data deduplication? (Choose all that apply.)

a. A 500 MB file

b. An encrypted file

c. A 16 KB file

d. A video file

b. An encrypted file, c. A 16 KB file

Encrypted files and files smaller than 32 KB are not processed by deduplication. Files up to 1 TB can

be processed by deduplication.

Which of the following PowerShell cmdlets allows you to view the amount of saved space and the

percentage of savings on a volume when using data deduplication?

a. Get-DedupSchedule

b. Get-DedupStatus

c. Get-DedupJob

d. Get-DedupVolume

d. Get-DedupVolume

The Get-DedupVolume cmdlet displays the amount of saved space and percentage of savings on a

volume.

Which of the following means that individual data blocks on the disk are copied as they change, as opposed

to file-level replication, which replicates entire files as they change?

a. Volume replication

b. Storage Replica

c. Block-level replication

d. File-level replication

Answer: c. Block-level replication

Block-level replication means that individual data blocks on the disk are copied as they change, as

opposed to file-level replication, which replicates entire files as they change.

Which of the following use scenarios is supported by Storage Replica? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Stretch cluster

b. Server-to-server

c. Cluster-to-server

d. Cluster-to-cluster

a. Stretch cluster, b. Server-to-server, d. Cluster-to-cluster

Storage Replica supports stretch clusters as well as server-to-server and cluster-to-cluster replication

scenarios.

What technology enables administrators to specify minimum and maximum performance values for virtual

hard disks?

a. Storage Quality of Service

b. SR-IOV

c. Storage Replica

d. SMB Direct

a. Storage Quality of Service

Storage Quality of Service (QoS) enables administrators to specify minimum and maximum

performance values for virtual hard disks.

What Windows Server technology nearly eliminates processor utilization for data transfers?

a. SMB Direct

b. Storage QoS

c. Azure File Sync

d. Receive side scaling

a. SMB Direct

SMB Direct is a performance technology designed specifically for the Server Message Block (SMB)

protocol. It uses an RDMA-capable network adapter to nearly eliminate server processor utilization for

data transfers.

What requirement must be met on your host’s network adapter if you are planning to implement SMB

Direct to reduce server processor utilization for data transfers?

a. SR-IOV must be enabled.

b. QoS must be disabled.

c. QoS must be enabled.

d. The adapter must be RDMA-compatible.

d. The adapter must be RDMA-compatible.

SMB Direct requires the host network adapter to be RDMA-compatible. You can check this by

running the Get-NetAdapterRdma cmdlet.

What feature in Azure File Sync keeps the contents of infrequently accessed files in the cloud?

a. Tiering

b. Data deduplication

c. Storage QoS

d. Namespaces

Answer: a. Tiering

Cloud tiering caches the most recently accessed files on local servers, while less frequently accessed

files are kept in the cloud.

Which of the following is not a requirement for deploying Azure File Sync?

a. Azure file share

b. Azure storage account

c. Distributed File System

d. Windows Server

c. Distributed File System

To deploy Azure File Sync, you need an Azure file share, an Azure storage account, and an onpremises Windows Server on which you install the Azure File Sync agent.

What must be installed on an on-premises Windows server in order to deploy Azure File Sync?

a. Storage QoS

b. Storage Sync agent

c. Storage Sync resource

d. SMB Direct

b. Storage Sync agent

The Storage Sync agent must be installed on an on-premises Windows server in order to implement

Azure File Sync.

Which of the following are components of a sync group?

a. One server endpoint, one or more cloud endpoints

b. One or more server endpoints, one or more cloud endpoints

c. Exactly two cloud endpoints and one or more server endpoints

d. One cloud endpoint, one or more server endpoints

d. One cloud endpoint, one or more server endpoints

A sync group specifies the servers and cloud shares that participate in file synchronization. A sync

group is composed of an Azure file share, which is referred to as a cloud endpoint, and one or more

servers with the Storage Sync Service agent installed that are referred to as server endpoints.

What is the first step you should complete when migrating DFS to Azure File Sync?

a. Create a sync group.

b. Disable DFS replication.

c. Enable cloud tiering.

d. Create a server endpoint.

a. Create a sync group.

A sync group specifies the servers and cloud shares that participate in file synchronization.