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1. Which of the following is a core principle of medical ethics?
a. Freedom
b. Autonomy
c. Utilitarianism
d. Courage
Answer: b. Autonomy
2. What is the definition of non-maleficence?
a. Do no harm
b. Maximize benefit
c. Promote well being
d. Be honest
Answer: a. Do no harm
3. Which of the following documents reflect the principle of justice in ethics?
a. US Constitution
b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
c. European Convention on Human Rights and Biomedicine
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
4. Which phrase summarizes the principle of utilitarianism?
a. First do no harm
b. Do unto others
c. The ends justify the means
d. To each according to their needs
Answer: c. The ends justify the means
5. Which philosopher is commonly associated with utilitarianism?
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Aristotle
c. Socrates
d. Immanuel Kant
Answer: a. Jeremy Bentham
6. Which philosopher is commonly associated with deontology?
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Aristotle
c. Socrates
d. Immanuel Kant
Answer: d. Immanuel Kant
7. Which philosopher is commonly associated with virtue ethics?
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Aristotle
c. Socrates
d. John Locke
Answer: b. Artisole
8. Which of the following is an example of the golden mean in virtue ethics between
recklessness and cowardice?
a. Honesty
b. Humility
c. Generosity
d. Courage
Answer: d. Courage
9. Which of the following ethical frameworks would characterize a particular action as
wrong, even if it led to a positive outcome?
a. Virtue ethics
b. Utilitarianism
c. Deontology
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Deontology
10. Which of the following ethical frameworks would justify telling a lie to avoid hurting
someone's feelings?
a. Virtue ethics
b. Utilitarianism
c. Deontology
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Utilitarianism
1. Patient competence and decision making capacity is most associated with which
core value of medical ethics?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Non-maleficence
d. Justice
Answer: a. Autonomy
2. Under which circumstance can a physician provide treatment to a minor without
parental or legal guardian consent?
a. Patient requests confidentiality
b. Patient is a distant relative
c. Patient has a life threatening injury
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Patient has a life threatening injury
3. Which of the following is a common reason for a minor to be declared
"emancipated"?
a. Patient is married
b. Patient is enlisted in the military
c. Patient has a court order declaring them emancipated
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
4. In a case of severe mental illness, under which scenario can a patient be transferred
to a psychiatric facility against their will?
a. Family member request
b. Imminent threat to self
c. Depression
d. Disorganized thoughts
Answer: b. Imminent threat to self
5. Under which of the following scenarios can a physician use chemical or physical
restraints on an uncooperative patient?
a. Intoxication
b. Altered mental status from medical illness
c. Delirium
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding chemical and physical
restraints?
a. Physical restraints are always preferable to chemical restraints
b. When chemical restraints are used, the maximum dose should be
administered
c. Physical and chemical restraints should be continued for the entire length of
the patient's care regardless of the patient's condition
d. Chemical restraints at minimum effective doses are preferable to physical
restraints
Answer: d. Chemical restraints at minimum effective doses are preferable to physical
Restraints
7. Which of the following is part of the definition of patient decision making capacity?
a. Understanding
b. Appreciation
c. Reasoning
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
8. Which of the following statements about patient decision making are true?
a. Capacity and legal competence are the same
b. Capacity is determined by hospital administrators
c. Legal competence is determined by the treating physician
d. Legal competence is determined by legal authorities
Answer: d. Legal competence is determined by legal authorities
9. What steps are necessary when treating an uncooperative, suicidal patient?
a. Medical evaluation
b. Psychiatric evaluation
c. Legal authority determination of competence
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
10. Placing a patient into a psychiatric facility against their will is known as what type of
commitment?
a. Voluntary commitment
b. Involuntary commitment
c. Judicial commitment
d. Medical commitment
Answer: b. Involuntary commitment
1. Which core value of medical ethics does patient confidentiality most closely align?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Non Maleficence
d. Justice
Answer: d. Justice
2. Which of the following is a reason that patient confidentiality is important to
medical care?
a. Allows patients to share private information to help their physician make the right diagnosis
b. Prevents law enforcement from accessing medical records when crimes are committed
c. Prevents insurance companies from accessing medical records to bill patients
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Allows patients to share private information to help their physician make the right diagnosis
3. Which of the following cases represents a breach in patient confidentiality?
a. Transmitting medical records to another physician with written permission
from the patient
b. Discussing the patient's medical condition with a consulting physician
c. Disclosing an adult patient's diagnosis to their family member who asks for
an update
d. All of the Above
Answer: c. Disclosing an adult patient's diagnosis to their family member who asks for an update
4. Which of the following is a potential scenario when patient confidentiality may be
breached (depending on the legal jurisdiction)?
a. Gunshot wound report to the police
b. Stab wound report to the police
c. Impaired driver report to the department of motor vehicles
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
5. Which of the following scenarios are suspicious for child abuse and should be
reported to child welfare authorities?
a. Sprained ankle in 11 year old while playing soccer
b. Spiral forearm fracture in 2 year old who fell from bed
c. Finger crush injury in 8 year old whose hand was caught in the car door
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Spiral forearm fracture in 2 year old who fell from bed
6. What is the benefit of breaching confidentiality in the case of reportable conditions
or notifiable diseases?
a. Allows public health officials to collect disease statistics
b. Disease surveillance
c. Allows public health officials to prevent diseases from spreading further
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
7. Which of the following diseases is a reportable or notifiable disease?
a. Syphilis
b. Pneumonia
c. Respiratory Syncytial Virus
d. Coronavirus
Answer: a. Syphilis
8. Which of the following are a common category of a notifiable condition?
a. Highly contagious diseases
b. Vaccine preventable illnesses
c. Diseases associated with bioterrorism
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
9. Which US law regulates the access and sharing of patient data, including digital
data?
a. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
b. Record Privacy Act
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
d. Smoot-Hawley tariff Act
Answer: c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
10. Which of the following is considered protected health information or PHI?
a. Laboratory Results
b. Digital x-ray images
c. Diagnosis billing code
d. Medical record number
Answer: d. Medical record number
1. Which of the following social changes has affected reproductive health ethics over
the past several decades?
a. Technological advancements opening new reproductive health options
b. Legal and regulatory challenges
c. Changing family structure
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
2. Proponents of legal abortion are usually referred to as what movement?
a. Pro Abortion
b. Pro Life
c. Pro Choice
d. Anti Regulation
Answer: c. Pro choice
3. During the years when abortion was illegal, certain states permitted the practice
under exceptional circumstances. These exceptions included which of the following?
a. Rape
b. Incest
c. Danger to the mother
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
4. The ABCL founded by Margaret Sanger is the precursor to what modern
organization?
a. National Organization for Women
b. Planned Parenthood
c. The Junior League
d. International Women's Health Coalition
Answer: b. Planned Parenthood
5. The case of Gerri Santoro highlighted what consequence of the criminalization of
abortion?
a. High cost of illegal abortions
b. Injustice of having to travel abroad for an abortion
c. Danger of obtaining illegal abortions
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Danger of obtaining illegal abortions
6. What year did the Roe v Wade verdict legalize abortion in the United States?
a. 1950
b. 1962
c. 1973
d. 1979
Answer: c. 1973
7. Which of the following is an example of maternal fetal conflict?
a. Miscarriage
b. Retained products of conception after childbirth
c. Woman uses heroin during pregnancy
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Woman uses heroin during pregnancy
8. The court case In re Fetus Brown grappled with what ethical dilemma?
a. Maternal religious beliefs
b. Sterilization
c. Egg donation
d. Surrogacy
Answer: a. Material religious beliefs
9. Which of the following is not a form of sterilization?
a. Tubal ligation
b. Oral contraceptive pill
c. Vasectomy
d. Hysterectomy and oophorectomy
Answer: b. Oral contraceptive pill
10. What ethical issues are raised by sperm and egg donation?
a. Anonymity of donors
b. Donors usually economically disadvantaged
c. Recipients usually economically elite
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
1. Prior to the advent of intensive care medicine in the 1950's and 1960's, what
percentage of people in the United States died in a hospital?
a. 30%
b. 50%
с. 70%
d. 80%
Answer: a. 30%
2. Today, what percentage of people in the United States die in a hospital or other
health facility?
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 80%
Answer: d. 80%
3. Which of the following principles of medical ethics are relevant to the issue of end of
life care?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Non maleficence
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
4. Which of the following is a definition of an advanced directive?
a. A document which names a person able to make decisions for the patient if
they are unable to do so
b. A legal document specifying what actions a patient would like their health
providers to take in different situations
c. A medical order written by the physician that preempts resuscitation if the
patient stops breathing or if their heart stops beating
d. All of the above
Answer: b. A legal document specifying what actions a patient would like their health
providers to take in different situations
5. Which of the following is a definition of a health care proxy?
a. A document which names a person able to make decisions for the patient if
they are unable to do so
b. A legal document specifying what actions a patient would like their health
providers to take in different situations
c. A medical order written by the physician that preempts resuscitation if the
patient stops breathing or if their heart stops beating
d. All of the above
Answer: a. A document which names a person able to make decisions for the patient if they are unable to do so
6. Which of the following is a definition of do not resuscitate order?
a. A document which names a person able to make decisions for the patient if
they are unable to do so
b. A legal document specifying what actions a patient would like their health
providers to take in different situations
c. A medical order written by the physician that preempts resuscitation if the
patient stops breathing or if their heart stops beating
d. All of the above
Answer: c. A medical order written by the physician that preempts resuscitation if the patient stops breathing or if their heart stops beating
7. What is the legal definition of medical futility?
a. A terminal illness at any stage
b. A terminal illness at the final stage
c. A severe life threatening medical condition or injury
d. There is no legal definition of medical futility
Answer: d. There is no legal definition of medical futility
8. In what state of the United States is physician assisted suicide legal?
a. Alabama
b. Florida
c. Oregon
d. Virginia
Answer: c. Oregon
9. What is the definition of physician assisted suicide?
a. A physician administers a lethal dose of a medication
b. A physician prescribes a lethal dose of a medication
c. A physician advises a patient to end their life
d. All of the above
Answer: b. A physician prescribes a lethal dose of a medication
10. What are common arguments against the practice of physician assisted suicide?
a. Violates the physician patient relationship
b. Can be used to violate the rights of poor or marginalized individuals
c. Often used instead of improving palliative care
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
1. When does the doctor patient relationship begin?
a. When a patient is referred to the doctor
b. When a patient makes an appointment to see a doctor
c. When a patient is examined and treated by a doctor
d. All of the above
Answer: c. When a patient makes an appointment to see a doctor
2. In what situation must a doctor accept a doctor patient relationship?
a. Emergency physician who sees a patient in the emergency room
b. Specialist receives a consultation request when not on duty
c. Patients calls physician office requesting appointment
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Emergency physician who sees a patient in the emergency room
3. What is needed for a doctor to terminate a patient relationship?
a. Written notification
b. Patient provided time to find another provider
c. Doctor provides referrals for other providers
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
4. According to the fiduciary relationship, what role does the doctor play?
a. Beneficiary
b. Responsible party
c. Executor
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Responsible party
5. Which of the following is a conflict of interest?
a. Physician receives cash bonuses for referrals
b. Physician runs their own laboratory
c. Physician has their own pharmacy
d. All of the above
Answer: d. of the above
6. What is the most common cause of physician impairment?
a. Alcohol abuse
b. Cocaine abuse
c. Dementia
d. Psychiatric illness
Answer: a. Alcohol abuse
7. If a physician suspects a colleague is impaired, who can they make a report to?
a. Department leaders
b. Hospital Management
c. State licensing board
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
8. Under which circumstances might a doctor patient romantic relationship be
permissible?
a. Treatment was for minor illness
b. Waiting period following treatment
c. Following official termination of doctor patient relationship
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
9. What characteristics of patient gifts to providers are concerning?
a. Small gift during holiday season
b. Lavish gift with expectation of special treatment
c. Hand-written card expressing gratitude
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Lavish gift with expectation of special treatment
10. Immediate disclosure and apology for a medical error results in which of the
following?
a. Higher lawsuit incidence
b. Disciplinary action
c. Lower lawsuit incidence
d. Low patient satisfaction scores
Answer: c. Lower lawsuit incidence
1. The origins of modern global health stem from which historical era?
a. The global era
b. The millennial era
c. The antebellum era
d. The colonial era
Answer: d. The colonial era
2. Which of the following are examples of positive global health initiatives of the
modern era?
a. Smallpox eradication
b. Global Polio Eradication Initiative
c. River Blindness eradication efforts
d. Guinea Worm eradication efforts
Answer: d. Guinea Worm eradication efforts (all of the above)
3. Which document first established health as a fundamental human right?
a. The Millennium Development Goals
b. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
c. The Sustainable Development Goals
d. The Alma Ata Declaration
Answer: b. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
4. Which document established the global goal of "health for all" with a focus on
primary health care?
a. The Millennium Development Goals
b. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
c. The Sustainable Development Goals
d. The Alma Ata Declaration
Answer: d. The Alma Ata Declaration
5. Which document directs the current global development agenda?
a. The Millennium Development Goals
b. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
c. The Sustainable Development Goals
d. The Alma Ata Declaration
Answer: c. The Sustainable Development Goals
6. Which of the following are social determinants of health?
a. Income
b. Education
c. Society
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
7. Which of the following is a key principle behind successful international aid?
a. Speed
b. Participation
c. Kickbacks
d. Corruption
Answer: d. Corruption
8. What is PEPFAR?
a. A TB control initiative
b. A Malaria control initiative
c. An HIV control initiative
d. All of the above
Answer: c. An HIV control initiative
9. Why do medical trainees seek out international medical experiences?
a. Experience new cultures
b. Learn about tropical diseases
c. Develop skills
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above.
10. What is the "brain drain"?
a. Transfer of brain tissue samples across borders
b. Migration from wealthy to poor countries
c. Migration from poor countries to wealthy countries
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Migration from poor countries to wealthy countries
1. Which of the following guide research ethics pertaining to human subjects?
a. Nuremberg Code
b. Declaration of Helsinki
c. National Laws
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
2. What is the main issue pertaining to an individual's right to participate or refuse to
participate in a study?
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice
Answer: c. Autonomy
3. Which of the following specific groups were targeted by Nazi Experiments?
a. Jews
b. Roma
c. Homosexuals
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
4. Where were the trials of Nazi war crimes performed?
a. Vienna
b. Nuremberg
c. Prague
d. Berlin
Answer: b. Nuremberg
5. Which of the following documents is considered a basis of the Nuremberg Code
a. The Helsinki Declaration
b. The NIH Code of Research Ethics
c. The Montreal Protocol
d. The Hippocratic Oath
Answer: d. The Hippocratic Oath
6. Which ethical code was designed in 1964 to govern medical research?
a. The Nuremberg Code
b. The Montreal Protocol
c. The Helsinki Declaration
d. The FDA Protocol
Answer: c. The Helsinki Declaration
7. What disease was studied during the Tuskegee experiments?
a. Syphilis
b. Chlamydia
c. Gonorrhea
d. Diarrhea
Answer: a. Syphilis
8. Why are HeLa cells considered valuable?
a. Cells divide faster and can be kept alive longer
b. Cells divide slower and can be kept alive longer
c. Cells mutate faster and can be kept alive longer
d. Cells do not divide
Answer: a. Cells divide faster and can be kept alive longer
9. How many patents are based on HeLa cells?
a. One
b. One Hundred
c. One Thousand
d. More than Ten Thousand
Answer: d. More than Ten Thousand
10. What type of stem cell can be induced to divide and differentiate into any cell type?
a. Bone Marrow
b. Cardiac
c. Embryonic
d. Liver
Answer: c. Embryonic
1. Which of the following is a challenge associated with ethical decision making in
health?
a. Time sensitivity
b. Life and death consequences
c. Differing perspectives
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
2. Under which situation can an ethical dilemma arise?
a. Conflicting guidance from key ethical principles
b. Disagreement between doctor and patient
c. Differing moral values
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
3. What is the first step a physician should take for effective decision making when
faced with an ethical dilemma?
a. Recognize that the decision is an ethical dilemma
b. Gather information
c. Counsel the patient
d. Consult an ethics committee
Answer: a. Recognize that the decision is an ethical dilemma
4. Which of the following are accepted rules for ethical conduct for physicians?
a. Altruism
b. Obligation
c. The Golden Rule
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
5. Which of the following is a definition of the impartiality test?
a. Reciprocity
b. Providing good reasons
c. Care without prejudice or discrimination
d. Provider would be comfortable if all physicians acted the same
Answer: c. Care without prejudice or discrimination
6. Which of the following is a definition of the interpersonal justifiability test?
a. Reciprocity
b. Providing good reasons
c. Care without prejudice or discrimination
d. Provider would be comfortable if all physicians acted the same
Answer: b. Providing good reasons
7. What is an example of ethical rationing?
a. Refusing care to homeless patients
b. START triage during mass casualty incidents
c. Selling generic medications to uninsured patients
d. All of the above
Answer: b. START triage during mass casualty incidents
8. Which of the following refers to the practice of doctors refusing to provide care that
they morally object to?
a. Conscientious refusal
b. Refusal of care
c. Scofflaw
d. Ethics committee review
Answer: a. Conscientious refusal
9. What is the definition of futile care?
a. Medical care that hastens death
b. Medical care that prolongs life
c. Medical care that provides no medical benefit
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Medical care that provides no medical benefit
10. What hospital board can help when there is a disagreement about the course of
treatment needed in difficult situations?
a. Institutional review board
b. Hospital ethics committee
c. Legal department
d. Office of the hospital CEO
Answer: b. Hospital ethics committee
8. The court case In re Fetus Brown grappled with what ethical dilemma?
a. Maternal religious beliefs
b. Sterilization
c. Egg donation
d. Surrogacy
Answer: a. Material religious beliefs