RBT Flashcards - All Modules

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282 Terms

1
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1A: The main purpose of this RBT training is to?

Improve the lives of individuals with autism

2
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1B: The three branches of the science of behavior analysis are the

Experimental analysis of behavior, behaviorism, and Applied Behavior Analysis

3
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1B: Which of the following is a component of good teaching?

Technical

Fun

Subjective

Emotional

Fun

4
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1B: Who is commonly attributed for discovering the Law of Effect?

Skinner

Watson

Thorndike

Baer

Thorndike

5
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1B: Who is commonly considered the father of Behaviorism?

Watson

Wolf

Risley

Pavlov

Watson

6
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1B: Which of the following is a dimension of ABA as outlined by Baer, Wolf, & Risley (1968)?

Empirical

Generality

Evidenced

Scientific

Generality

7
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1B: What percentage of participants reached recover in the Lovaas (1987) study?

23%

98%

6%

47%

47%

8
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1B: What was one of the primary lessons learned from Lovaas (1973)?

Parents should not be part of intervention

Need for parents to be trained

Children with autism cannot learn

Intervention can only be implemented to young children

Need for parents to be trained

9
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1B: In the Lovaas (1987) study, what was the criteria for best outcome?

IQ, school placement, and diagnosis

IQ, school placement, and funding

School placement, diagnosis, and parents reporting

School placement, parent reporting, and sibling reporting

IQ, school placement, and diagnosis

10
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1C: What is one component of rigid ABA?

Unvarying adherence to protocols

Early intensive intervention

Parent education and training

Implementing comprehensive curriculum

Unvarying adherence to protocols

11
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1C: What is a definition of a progressive approach to ABA?

Adherence to ABA protocols

Combining the science and art of ABA

The science of ABA

Combining various interventions

Combining the science and art of ABA

12
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1C: What is the crux of progressive ABA?

Protocols

Training

Intensive treatment

Clinical judgment

Clinical judgment

13
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1C: What is one aspect of the learner that is assessed when using clinical judgment?

Availability

Receptivity

Private events

Subjectivity

Receptivity

14
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1D: What were one of the rights outlined by Van Houten et al. (1988)

Learners welfare

Best outcomes

Certified supervisors

Registered Behavior Technicians

Learners welfare

15
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1D: Teaching children to label state capitals may be a violation of which of the rights outlined by Van Houten et al. (1988)?

A therapeutic environment

A competent behavior analyst

Learning functional skills

Behavioral assessment

Learning functional skills

16
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1D: What are the other two levels created by the BACB?

BCBA & BCaBA

BCBA & BCAT

BCaBA & BCAT

BCBA & ABAI

BCBA & BCaBA

17
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1D: Which of the following is one of the requirements to obtain the RBT credential?

Working with adults diagnosed with ASD

Working with children diagnosed with ASD

Having a bachelor's degree

Completing 40 hours of training

Completing 40 hours of training

18
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1D: What is one problem with a sibling of an RBT being that RBTs supervisor?

Siblings have been documented to be ineffective supervisors

Potential for the development of a dual relationship

RBTs are not qualified to be supervisors

Training would result in ineffective interventionist

Potential for the development of a dual relationship

19
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1D: How many face-to-face meetings must occur per month between the RBT and the supervisor?

2

1

3

4

2

20
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1D: What percentage of your total hours of an RBT must be spent in supervision?

10%

5%

25%

50%

5%

21
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1D: What is one of your responsibilities as an RBT?

Advocacy

Supervision

Direct instruction

Program development

Direct instruction

22
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2A: According to Autism Partnership Foundation, what are the RBT standards?

Minimal

Comprehensive

Adequate

Quality

Minimal

23
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2A: Critical thinking important to intervention for individuals diagnosed with ASD to ensure that:

The RBT is competent

Best procedures are being implemented

Intervention is always effective

Intervention is always efficient

Best procedures are being implemented

24
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2A: When receiving feedback which of the following should be avoided?

Talking to others about the feedback

Seeking clarification

Changing based on the feedback

Taking feedback personally

Taking feedback personally

25
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2A: When receiving feedback which of the following should be done?

Talking to others about the feedback

Following through on making changes

Personalizing the feedback

Following through on some of the feedback

Following through on making changes

26
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2A: Which of the following is the best resource for keeping updated on the field of ABA?

Facebook pages

Parent testimonials

Television shows

Journal articles

Journal articles

27
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2A: What is an example of a soft skill?

Compassion

Objectivity

Cynicism

Pragmatism

Compassion

28
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2B: According to the Leaf and colleagues' study, what was the correlation between mock exam scores and implementation of DTT?

No relationship

No relationship and moderate positive relationship

No relationship and strong positive relationship

No relationship and minimal positive relationship

No relationship and moderate positive relationship

29
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2B: One potential problem with the addition of assistant trainers in the RBT certification process is the assistant trainer could be a(n)

BCaBA

BCBA

RBT

An expert in the field

RBT

30
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3A: "The practice of objective observation of the phenomena of interest" best describes:

Determinism

Behaviorism

Empiricism

Pragmatism

Empiricism

31
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3A: "A systematic approach to understanding behavior of social importance" best describes

Applied Behavior Analysis

Experimental Analysis of Behavior

Behaviorism

Philosophy of Behavior

Applied Behavior Analysis

32
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3B: "A group of responses with the same function" best describes a:

Generalization class

Response

Generalized operant

Response class

Response class

33
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3B: "Environmental concerns or stimulus changes that exist or occur prior to the behavior of interest" is the definition of which of the following terms?

Consequence

Antecedent

Establishing operation

Motivating reinforcer

Antecedent

34
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3B: "A stimulus change that follows a behavior of interest" is the definition of which of the following terms?

Antecedent

Consequence

Establishing operation

Motivating operation

Consequence

35
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3B: "The duration, rate, frequency, etc. of behavior absent of any restrictions" is the definition of which of the following terms?

Free operant

Controlled operant

Operant

Respondent

Free operant

36
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3C: "A type of herbal behavior with the response controlled primarily by an immediate prior nonverbal stimulus" best describes which of the following?

Echoic

Intraverbal

Tact

Mand

Tact

37
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3C: "A stimulus that is auditory that evokes a response of speaking in a way that sounds similar to that stimulus" best describes which of the following?

Tact

Echoic

Mand

Intraverbal

Echoic

38
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3C: "A type of verbal behavior in which the response form or topography controlled by a current unlearned or learner establishing operation" best describes which of the following?

Intraverbal

Echoic

Mand

Tact

Mand

39
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3C: "Those events that take place within an organism's skin or are otherwise only accessible to the organism" best describes which of the following?

Private events

Public events

Explanatory fictions

Autoclitics

Private events

40
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3D: The rate, duration, latency, etc. of the behavior of interest prior to the manipulation of the environment" best describes which of the following?

Intervention

Baseline

Maintenance

Generalization

Baseline

41
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3D: "Uncontrolled variables known or suspected to exert an influence on the dependent variable" is the definition of which of the following?

Dependent variable

External validity

Internal validity

Confounding variables

Confounding variables

42
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4A: "If a behavior is followed closely in time by a stimulus event and as a result the future frequency of that type of behavior increases in similar conditions" best describes which of the following?

Punishment

Reinforcement

Prompting

Shaping

Reinforcement

43
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4A: Providing a learner with an iPad following a correct response that results in an increase in correct responses best describes which of the following?

Negative punishment

Positive punishment

Negative reinforcement

Positive reinforcement

Positive reinforcement

44
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4A: "When a response is followed by the presentation of a stimulus, and, as a result, similar responses occur more frequently in the future" best describes which of the following

Positive reinforcement

Negative reinforcement

Positive punishment

Negative punishment

Positive reinforcement

45
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4A: "The occurrence of a response produces the removal, termination, reduction, or postponement of a stimulus, which leads to an increase in the future occurrence of that response" best describes which of the following?

Negative reinforcement

Positive reinforcement

Negative punishment

Positive punishment

Negative reinforcement

46
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4A: Providing a learner with a break following a correct response that increases correct responses is most likely an example of which of the following?

Positive reinforcement

Negative punishment

Negative reinforcement

Positive reinforcement

Negative reinforcement

47
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4A: Money is most likely an example of which of the following?

Generalized unconditioned reinforcer

Generalized conditioned reinforcer

Generalized conditioned punisher

Generalized unconditioned punisher

Generalized conditioned reinforcer

48
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4A: "A previously neutral stimulus change that has acquired the capability to function as a reinforcer through stimulus-stimulus pairing with one or more unconditioned reinforcers or conditioned reinforcers" best describes which of the following?

Unconditioned reinforcer

Conditioned punisher

Unconditioned punisher

Conditioned reinforcer

49
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4A: Food is an example of which of the following?

Unconditioned reinforcer

Conditioned reinforcer

Conditioned punisher

Unconditioned punisher

Unconditioned reinforcer

50
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4A: "A stimulus change that can increase the future frequency of behavior without prior pairing with any other form of reinforcement" best describes which of the following?

Conditioned reinforcer

Conditioned punisher

Unconditioned reinforcer

Unconditioned punisher

Unconditioned reinforcer

51
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4B: Which one of the following is one of the four basic schedules of reinforcement?

Fixed variable

Variable interval

Ratio interval

Fixed timing

Variable interval

52
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4B: "A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behavior following the time period where the time period is fixed" describes which schedule of reinforcement?

Fixed-ratio

Fixed interval

Variable interval

Variable-ratio

Fixed interval

53
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4B: Scalloped patterns of responding are typically associated with which schedule of reinforcement?

Variable-ratio

Variable interval

Fixed interval

Fixed-ratio

Fixed interval

54
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4B: "A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behavior following the time period where the time period is variable" describes which schedule of reinforcement?

Variable-interval

Fixed interval

Fixed ratio

Variable ratio

Variable-interval

55
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4B: Which schedule of reinforcement requires the completion of a specified, unvarying number of responses to produce a reinforcer?

Variable ratio

Fixed interval

Variable interval

Fixed ratio

Fixed ratio

56
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4B: Which schedule of reinforcement requires the completion of a variable number of responses to produce a reinforcer?

Variable ratio

Fixed ratio

Fixed interval

Variable interval

Variable ratio

57
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4C: Having a learner select which items they like prior to teaching following a systematic protocol to identify hierarchy of potential preferences is known as which of the following?

Informal preference assessments

Formal preference assessments

Formal reinforcement assessments

Informal reinforcement assessments

Formal preference assessments

58
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4C: One problem with informal interviews to identify potential reinforcers is they are not

Evidence-based

Useful

Reliable

Comprehensive

Reliable

59
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4C: Providing free access to a variety of stimuli for the purposes of identifying potential reinforcers is best described by which of the following?

Free operant preference assessment

Paired stimulus preference assessment

Multiple stimulus without replacement preference assessment

In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

Free operant preference assessment

60
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4C: Providing a learner with a series of choices between two items in an effort to identify potential reinforcers best describes which of the following?

Free operant preference assessment

Multiple stimulus without replacement preference assessment

Paired stimulus preference assessment

In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

Paired stimulus preference assessment

61
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4C: Presenting an array of items and asking the learner select one item and then putting the item back in the array after the selection in an effort to identify potential reinforcers best describes which of the following?

In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

Paired stimulus preference assessment

Multiple stimulus without replacement preference assessment

Free operant preference assessment

Multiple stimulus without replacement preference assessment

62
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4C: A procedure in which the RBT makes assesses a variety of variables moment to moment to identify what could potentially function as a reinforcer is known as a(n)

Paired stimulus preference assessment

In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

Free operant preference assessment

Multiple stimulus without replacement preference assessment

In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

63
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4C: When compared to formal preference assessments, research on in-the-moment reinforcer analysis is shown to be

More efficient

More effective

As efficient

More socially valid

More efficient

64
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4D: What is a potential problem with using candy as a reinforcer?

Age inappropriate

Unhealthy

Costly

Ineffective for most

Unhealthy

65
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4D: Presenting a previously neutral stimulus with an established reinforcer best describes which of the following?

Discriminative pairing

Reinforcement pairing

Stimulus pairing

Observational pairing

Stimulus pairing

66
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4D: Watching others access stimuli contingent upon a response best describes which of the following?

Reinforcement pairing

Stimulus pairing

Observational pairing

Discriminative pairing

Observational pairing

67
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4D: When using a progressive approach to conditioning reinforcers, one variable the RBT should evaluate is the learner's

Non-verbal or verbal behavior

Non-verbal behavior

Verbal behavior

Non-verbal and verbal behavior

Non-verbal and verbal behavior

68
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4E: One main difference between bribery and reinforcement is the

Items provided

Timing of the item provided

Effectiveness of both

Results of both

Timing of the item provided

69
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4E: This is the term for when a learner is engaging in disruptive behaviors and is offered something preferred to stop.

Bribery

Reinforcement

Positive parenting

Overcorrection

Bribery

70
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4E: When a consequence is provided contingent upon a learner engaging in appropriate behavior and that appropriate behavior is more likely to occur in the future is best described by which of the following?

Overcorrection

Positive parenting

Reinforcement

Bribery

Reinforcement

71
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4E: What is one potential problem with bribery?

Not effective

Facilitates negotiation

Not efficient

Facilitates independence

Facilitates negotiation

72
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4E: What is one of the 10 commandments of reinforcement within the Autism Partnership Model?

Only use preferences

Include instructive feedback

Provide descriptive praise

Thin the schedule of reinforcement

Thin the schedule of reinforcements

73
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4F: Which of the following best describes when a learner earns tickets which are eventually exchanged for a toy?

Overcorrection

Positive practice

Punishment

Token economy

Token economy

74
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4F: What is one of the most important components of a token economy?

Using poker chips

Using effective reinforcers

Ensuring the board has 10 tokens

Conducting a preference assessment

Using effective reinforcers

75
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4F: Rainbow tokens most closely aligns with which schedule of reinforcement?

Fixed-interval

Variable-interval

Conjugate

Fixed-time

Conjugate

76
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4F: Which token economy is in place when the learner is unaware of how many tokens are required prior to exchanging?

Premack principle

Level system

Magic number

Conjugate

Magic number

77
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5A: The first rule of punishment is

Use it only for self-injury

Use it sparingly

Do not use it

It happens

It happens

78
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5A: A response followed immediately by a stimulus change that decreases the future probability of similar responses is best described by which of the following?

Punishment

Reinforcement

Shaping

Teaching interaction procedure

Punishment

79
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5A: Saying "no" contingent upon a learner's response that results in a decrease in the probability of that response in the future is an example of which of the following?

Positive punishment

Negative punishment

Positive reinforcement

Negative reinforcement

Positive punishment

80
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5A: Removing a token contingent upon a response that results in a decrease in the probability of that response in the future is an example of which of the following?

Positive punishment

Positive reinforcement

Negative punishment

Negative reinforcement

Negative punishment

81
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5A: A bad odor is likely an example of which of the following?

Conditioned punisher

Unconditioned punisher

Conjugate reinforcer

Premack principle

Unconditioned punisher

82
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5A: A stimulus change that functions as punishment as a result of a person's conditioning history is a definition of which of the following?

Conditioned punisher

Unconditioned punisher

Conjugate punisher

Aversive punisher

Conditioned punisher

83
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5A: Which of the following two variables affect the effectiveness of punishers?

Immediacy and age

Immediacy and schedule

Schedule and cognitive level

Schedule and age

Immediacy and schedule

84
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5A: A potential negative side effect of punishment is

Behavioral extinction

Lack of effectiveness

Lack of maintenance

Behavioral contrast

Behavioral contrast

85
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5B: What was the analogy of the history of punishment that the presenter used?

Rollercoaster

Merry-go round

Carousel

Pendulum

Pendulum

86
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5B: The effectiveness of punishment was first evaluated in which type of research?

Applied

Basic

Clinical

Social

Basic

87
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6A: Behavior a client engages in that could cause harm to themselves or others is sometimes referred to as:

Pro-social behavior

Functionless behavior

Motivating behavior

Aberrant behavior

Aberrant behavior

88
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6A: One problem associated with stereotypic behavior is it

Does not feel good to the learner

Could interfere with learning

Is hard to decrease

Should not be targeted in intervention

Could interfere with learning

89
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6A: Minshawi and colleagues (2014) reported that up to ____ individuals with ASD display self-injurious behavior

10%

50%

25%

100%

50%

90
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6B: Defining a behavior in observable terms is known as which of the following?

Topography definition

Functional definition

Operational definition

Subjective definition

Operational definition

91
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6B: This type of definition describes changes in the environment related to the behavior

Progressive

Subjective

Functional

Topographical

Functional

92
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6B: Why is an operational definition important?

It results in more accurate scoring of behavior

It permits measurement of social validity

To determine the experimental design

To not be a pseudoscience

It results in more accurate scoring of behavior

93
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6C: Which four functions are commonly included in historical literature on functional analysis?

Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape, and control

Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape, and emotional regulation

Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape, and respondent

Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape, and automatic

Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape, and automatic

94
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6C: According to the Autism Partnership Method/Model what is another potential function of behavior?

Lunar cycle

Control

Age

Mood

Control

95
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6D: Indirect measures of aberrant behavior are also known as which of the following?

Second hand observation

First hand observation

Functional analysis

Functional behavior assessment

Second hand observation

96
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6D: Collecting A-B-C data is also known as which of the following?

Second hand observation

First hand observation

Latency observation

Functional analysis

First hand observation

97
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6D: Which of the following is the best reason for conducting a functional behavior assessment?It is a hallmark of a progressive approach to ABA

In an effort to increase social behavior

Because of a district policy

To identify the function of behavior

To identify the function of behavior

98
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6D: What are the three components of active listening?

What we do, what we observe, what we analysis

What we do, what we observe, what we write

What we do, what we say, what we write

What we do, what we say, what we observe

What we do, what we say, what we observe

99
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6D: "Was he screaming, hitting, or throwing objects?" is an indirect method known as which of the following?

Pipe lighting

Reflecting

Laundry list

Open-ended questions

Laundry list

100
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6D: What is the second step of direct observation?

Actual observation

Functional analysis

Describing the behavior

Analogue analysis

Describing the behavior