Neurology and Mental Health Practice Flashcards

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One hundred practice flashcards covering neurology and mental health topics including anatomy, assessment, Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease, migraines, seizures, and meningitis based on the lecture material.

Last updated 2:54 PM on 7/10/26
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101 Terms

1
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What are the motor nerve cells that carry signals away from the CNS to the cells in the PNS?

Efferent neurons

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Which neurons are specialized to send impulses towards the CNS and away from the PNS?

Afferent (sensory) neurons

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What is the name of the basic unit of the nervous system?

The neuron

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Which part of a neuron receives an impulse from another neuron, potentially causing excitation or inhibition?

Dendrites

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What are the three components that make up each neuron?

A cell body (soma), dendrites, and a single axon

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What is the outer layer of the meninges called?

Dura mater

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What is the innermost layer of the meninges called?

Pia mater

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Where is the subdural space located within the brain's protective layers?

Between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer

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In which space does the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulate?

Subarachnoid space

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Which space is located between the skull and the outer layer of the dura mater?

Epidural space

11
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What is the name of the dura mater fold that lies between the cerebral hemispheres and the cerebellum?

Tentorium

12
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What is the major relay station or central switchboard for the central nervous system?

Thalamus

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Which part of the diencephalon plays a major role in autonomic nervous system (ANS) control and cognition?

Hypothalamus

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Which part of the diencephalon regulates emotion and contributes to smooth voluntary motor function?

Epithalamus

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What is the largest part of the brain, responsible for intelligence, creativity, and memory?

Cerebrum

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What structure joins the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum?

Corpus callosum

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What group of neurons at the base of the cerebrum helps regulate motor function?

Basal ganglia

18
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Which lobe of the cerebral cortex contains the primary motor area and Broca speech center?

Frontal lobe

19
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Which lobe is responsible for understanding three-dimensional spatial relationships and perception of body parts?

Parietal lobe

20
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In which lobe is the Wernicke area for language comprehension located?

Temporal lobe

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Which lobe contains the primary visual center of the brain?

Occipital lobe

22
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What is the main function of the cerebellum regarding limb movement?

It enables a person to keep an extremity from overshooting an intended target

23
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Which structures are included in the brainstem?

Midbrain, pons, and medulla

24
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What system of special cells throughout the brainstem controls awareness and alertness?

Reticular activating system (RAS)

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Which physiological barrier exists because cerebral capillary endothelial cells are joined tightly together?

Blood-brain barrier (BBB)

26
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What ring-like structure at the base of the brain is formed by the joining of cerebral arteries?

Circle of Willis

27
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Which area of the brainstem serves as the cardiac-slowing and respiratory center?

Medulla

28
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Which part of the brainstem contains the cardiac acceleration and vasoconstriction centers?

Pons

29
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What is the location of the periaqueductal gray, which may abolish pain when stimulated?

Midbrain

30
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How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?

3131 pairs

31
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What is the breakdown by region of the 3131 pairs of spinal nerves?

88 cervical, 1212 thoracic, 55 lumbar, 55 sacral, and 11 coccygeal

32
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Where do the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) cells originate in the spinal cord?

Gray matter from T1T1 through L2L2 or L3L3

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Which part of the ANS is referred to as the craniosacral division?

The parasympathetic nervous system

34
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What is the primary function of the sympathetic nervous system?

Stimulating functions for fight or flight, such as heart and respiratory rate

35
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What is the function of Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)?

Smell

36
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Which cranial nerve is responsible for central and peripheral vision?

Cranial Nerve II (Optic)

37
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Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor) is responsible for which physiological response besides eye movement?

Pupil constriction

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Which cranial nerve controls the superior oblique muscles for eye movement?

Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)

39
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What are the two primary functions of Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)?

Sensory perception from the face/scalp and muscles of mastication (chewing)

40
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Which eye muscle is controlled by Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens)?

Lateral rectus muscle

41
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Cranial Nerve VII (Facial) provides taste sensation to which part of the tongue?

Anterior two-thirds of the tongue

42
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What is the primary function of Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear)?

Hearing

43
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Which cranial nerve involves the parotid glands and taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue?

Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)

44
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Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic-motor innervation to the thoracic and abdominal viscera?

Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)

45
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Which muscles are controlled by Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory)?

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

46
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What is the function of Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)?

Skeletal muscles of the tongue for swallowing

47
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In older adults, where is the greatest loss of brain weight typically located?

White matter of the frontal lobe

48
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Which cells in the CNS are responsible for cell-mediated immune response and deteriorate with age?

Microglia

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What is the earliest and most reliable indication that central neurologic function has declined?

A decrease in level of consciousness (LOC) and orientation

50
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What does the acronym AVPU stand for in level of consciousness assessment?

Alert, Voice responsive, Pain responsive, Unresponsive

51
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When assessing pupils, which two cranial nerves are being evaluated for reaction?

CN II and III

52
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How is Cranial Nerve VII (Facial) assessed by a nurse?

By checking facial symmetry while observing the patient's face

53
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Which two cranial nerves are checked together to assess swallowing?

CN IX and X

54
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What are the three categories assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

Eye opening, motor response, and verbal response

55
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What total score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) indicates a patient is comatose?

77 or less

56
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A decrease of how many points in the GCS total is considered clinically significant?

22 or more points

57
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What abnormal posturing involves the flexion of arms, wrists, and fingers with internal rotation?

Decortication

58
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What abnormal movement is characterized by body spasms bowing forward and is associated with brainstem dysfunction?

Decerebration

59
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What term defines the loss of sensory comprehension and the inability to recognize familiar stimulation?

Agnosia

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What is the term for the inability to find words?

Anomia

61
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What is the term for the impairment in performing familiar movements?

Apraxia

62
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What is the most common type of dementia?

Alzheimer's disease

63
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What is the cause of Vascular Dementia?

Strokes or other vascular disorders that decrease blood flow to the brain

64
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What are the classic pathophysiological changes seen in Alzheimer's disease?

Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques

65
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What is the most well-established genetic factor for Alzheimer's disease in white populations?

Apolipoprotein E (APOE)

66
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What is often one of the first symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

Short-term memory impairment

67
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What is the term for increased confusion seen in Alzheimer's patients at night or when light is inadequate?

Sundowning

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At what stage of Alzheimer's disease is a patient typically independent in ADLs but may lose their sense of smell?

Early-stage AD

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In which stage of Alzheimer's does a patient typically become incontinent and encounter visuospatial deficits?

Moderate-stage AD

70
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In later stages of AD, what do CT scans typically show in the brain?

Cerebral atrophy, vascular degeneration, ventricular enlargement, wide sulci, and shrunken gyri

71
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What diagnostic marker in the CSF supports an Alzheimer's diagnosis when its levels decrease?

Amyloid beta protein precursor (soluble) (sBPP)

72
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What therapy involves acknowledging a patient's feelings and concerns without overcorrecting their reality?

Validation therapy

73
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Which drug class is approved for treating the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

Cholinesterase inhibitors

74
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Why are psychotropic drugs often considered chemical restraints in dementia patients?

Because they decrease mobility and the patient's self-management ability

75
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What is the Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia Instrument (PAINAD) used for?

To assess pain in noncommunicative patients

76
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When assessing for decision-making capacity in AD, what four processes must be evaluated?

Understanding the situation, appreciating the situation, reasoning ability, and making appropriate choices

77
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What are the four cardinal symptoms of Parkinson's disease?

Tremor, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia/akinesia, and postural instability

78
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What is the non-motor sign of Parkinson's involving small handwriting?

Micrographia

79
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Symptoms of Parkinson's appear when dopamine levels decrease to what percentage of usual levels?

70%70\% to $$80\%

80
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Why do Parkinson's patients experience orthostatic hypotension and drooling?

Loss of sympathetic nervous system influence on the heart and blood vessels

81
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What abnormal proteins deposit in the brains of patients with PD, causing movement problems?

Lewy bodies

82
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In Stage 11 of Parkinson's disease, where are resting tremors usually noticed?

In one arm (unilateral)

83
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What term describes the Parkinson's symptom where patients feel as though they are stuck to the floor?

Freezing

84
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What is the purpose of a DaT scan?

To confirm abnormalities in dopamine transmission in the basal ganglia via SPECT

85
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The wearing-off phenomenon in PD is characterized by alternating periods of what?

Good mobility (on periods) and altered mobility (off periods)

86
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Why should Parkinson's medications like carbidopa/levodopa be given before meals?

To increase absorption and transport across the blood-brain barrier

87
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What is a drug holiday in the context of Parkinson's disease?

A period of up to 1010 days where the patient receives no drug therapy for PD to reset response

88
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In Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS), where is the pulse generator typically placed?

Under the skin, similar to a cardiac pacemaker

89
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Which classification of migraine occurs on at least 1515 days of the month?

Chronic migraine

90
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Which phase of a classic migraine includes flashing lights and numbness of the lips or tongue?

Aura phase

91
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Why is caffeine often included in migraine medications?

It narrows blood vessels by blocking adenosine, which dilates vessels

92
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What severe side effect must patients report immediately when taking triptan drugs?

Angina (chest pain) or chest discomfort

93
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What is a tonic-clonic seizure?

A generalized seizure involving a stiffening phase (tonic) followed by rhythmic jerking (clonic)

94
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What is the postictal phase of a seizure?

The period after the seizure characterized by fatigue, acute confusion, and lethargy

95
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What therapeutic drug level range is desired for phenytoin?

1010-2020 mcg/mL

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What is the medical definition of status epilepticus?

A prolonged seizure lasting longer than 55 minutes or repeated seizures over 3030 minutes

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What is the drugs of choice for treating status epilepticus?

IV-push lorazepam or diazepam

98
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Any single seizure lasting longer than how many minutes can potentially cause death?

1010 minutes

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What is the priority care action for a patient in convulsive status epilepticus?

Establishing an airway

100
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Inflammation of which specific meningeal layers characterizes meningitis?

Pia mater and arachnoid