MOCK BOARD EXAM Microbiology & Infectious Disease

[Microbiology Basics — 1] _____ are small, extrachromosomal DNA molecules that code for nonessential but important information, including antibiotic-resistance genes and virulence factors. A. Ribosomes; B. Plasmids; C. Endospores; D. Capsules

B. Plasmids

[Microbiology Basics — 2] _____ media allow distinction between two bacteria without altering their growth rate. A. Selective; B. Enriched; C. Differential; D. Reducing

C. Differential media

[Microbiology Basics — 3] _____ occurs when a healthy microbiome shifts to an abnormal microbiome and often results in disease. A. Symbiosis; B. Dysbiosis; C. Metabolism; D. Fermentation

B. Dysbiosis

[Microbiology Basics — 4] What biological indicators are used to monitor whether sterilization has occurred? A. Antibiotic disks; B. Bacterial endospores; C. Agar plates; D. Capsules

B. Bacterial endospores, often used in spore strips

[Microbiology Basics — 5] _____ are clusters of microorganisms that stick to surfaces. A. Colonies; B. Capsules; C. Biofilms; D. Endospores

C. Biofilms

[Microbiology Basics — 6] Which method sterilizes heat-sensitive liquids and disinfects air through the physical removal of microbes? A. Autoclaving; B. Incineration; C. Filtration; D. Pasteurization

C. Filtration

[Microbiology Basics — 7A] What is phase A, the first phase on a standard bacterial growth curve? A. Lag phase; B. Log phase; C. Stationary phase; D. Death phase

A. Lag phase

[Microbiology Basics — 7B] What is phase B, the rapidly increasing phase on a standard bacterial growth curve? A. Death phase; B. Stationary phase; C. Log or exponential phase; D. Lag phase

C. Log or exponential phase

[Microbiology Basics — 7C] What is phase C, the plateau phase on a standard bacterial growth curve? A. Stationary phase; B. Lag phase; C. Death phase; D. Log phase

A. Stationary phase

[Microbiology Basics — 7D] What is phase D, the decreasing phase on a standard bacterial growth curve? A. Lag phase; B. Death or decline phase; C. Stationary phase; D. Log phase

B. Death or decline phase

[Microbiology Basics — 8] What are the standard gravity-displacement autoclave settings for sterilization? A. 100°C at 5 psi for 5 minutes; B. 121°C at 15 psi for at least 15 minutes; C. 150°C at 30 psi for 5 minutes; D. 80°C at 10 psi for 30 minutes

B. 121°C at 15 psi for at least 15 minutes

[Microbiology Basics — 9] An inanimate object, such as a doorknob, that may transmit infectious agents indirectly is called a _____. A. Vector; B. Reservoir; C. Fomite; D. Pathogen

C. Fomite

[Microbiology Basics — 10] Fungi are _____ organisms that contain _____ in their cell walls. A. Prokaryotic and peptidoglycan; B. Eukaryotic and chitin; C. Prokaryotic and cellulose; D. Eukaryotic and lipopolysaccharide

B. Eukaryotic organisms with chitin in their cell walls

[Microbiology Basics — 11] Which polymer makes up the bacterial cell wall? A. Chitin; B. Cellulose; C. Peptidoglycan; D. Glycogen

C. Peptidoglycan

[Microbiology Basics — 12] Bacteria in a biofilm are _____ resistant to antibiotics than bacteria in planktonic form. A. Less; B. Equally; C. More; D. Never

C. More resistant

[Microbiology Basics — 13] To obtain a countable number of colonies from a concentrated bacterial culture, what type of dilutions must be performed? A. Differential; B. Serial; C. Selective; D. Binary

B. Serial dilutions

[Microbiology Basics — 14] Which organisms include most medically important bacteria because they grow best near 37°C? A. Psychrophiles; B. Thermophiles; C. Mesophiles; D. Halophiles

C. Mesophiles

[Microbiology Basics — 15] Which type of microbe is always an obligate intracellular parasite? A. Gram-positive bacteria; B. Helminths; C. Gram-negative bacteria; D. Archaea; E. Viruses

E. Viruses

[Microbiology Basics — 16] _____ radiation, such as ultraviolet light, has low penetrating power but can approach sterilization with sufficiently long exposure. A. Ionizing; B. Nonionizing; C. Infrared; D. Microwave

B. Nonionizing radiation

[Microbiology Basics — 17] A microbe capable of causing damage to a host is called a _____. A. Pathogen; B. Fomite; C. Vector; D. Saprophyte

A. Pathogen

[Microbiology Basics — 18] The collection of genomes from all microorganisms in a defined environment is called the _____. A. Microbiota; B. Metagenome; C. Microbe; D. Virome

B. Metagenome

[Microbiology Basics — 19] Which bacteria have both an inner and an outer membrane? A. Only Gram-negative bacteria; B. Only Gram-positive bacteria; C. Both; D. Neither

A. Only Gram-negative bacteria

[Microbiology Basics — 20] The process of removing or killing most microorganisms on or in a material is called _____. A. Sterilization; B. Disinfection; C. Inoculation; D. Incubation

B. Disinfection

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 1] Which disinfectants are registered as hospital disinfectants with potency against HIV, HBV, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis but are not effective against bacterial spores? A. Low-level; B. Intermediate-level; C. High-level; D. Household

B. Intermediate-level disinfectants

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 2] Trimethoprim inhibits the synthesis of _____. A. Peptidoglycan; B. Folic acid; C. DNA gyrase; D. Ergosterol

B. Folic acid

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 3] Which term means able to cause disease? A. Pathogenic; B. Commensal; C. Symbiotic; D. Sterile

A. Pathogenic

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 4] An infection acquired during a hospital stay or occurring in a healthcare facility is called a _____ infection. A. Local; B. Zoonotic; C. Nosocomial; D. Opportunistic

C. Nosocomial infection

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 5] An infection limited to a small area of the body is a _____ infection. A. Systemic; B. Local; C. Focal; D. Secondary

B. Local infection

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 6] Which disinfectants have demonstrated efficacy against Salmonella enterica, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Hospital disinfectants; B. Household disinfectants; C. Sterilants; D. Antiseptics

A. Hospital disinfectants

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 7] The time between exposure to a pathogen and the onset of signs and symptoms is called the _____. A. Convalescent period; B. Incubation period; C. Prodromal period; D. Decline period

B. Incubation period

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 8] Which virus type has an outermost covering made primarily of lipids? A. Non-enveloped viruses; B. Enveloped viruses

B. Enveloped viruses

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 9] Which highly toxic, broad-spectrum disinfectants are tuberculocidal but not sporicidal, disrupt walls and membranes, precipitate proteins, and leave residual biocidal film? A. Alcohols; B. Phenolics; C. Aldehydes; D. Halogens

B. Phenolics

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 10] Which type of virus is less likely to remain infectious after passing through the low pH of the stomach? A. Non-enveloped viruses; B. Enveloped viruses

B. Enveloped viruses

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 11] An infection normally present in animals that can spread to humans is called a _____ infection. A. Nosocomial; B. Local; C. Zoonotic; D. Opportunistic

C. Zoonotic infection

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 12] What concentration of alcohol is generally the most effective microbicidal concentration? A. 25%; B. 50%; C. 70%; D. 100%

C. 70%

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 13] Polypeptide antibiotics such as polymyxin B disrupt bacterial _____. A. Ribosomes; B. Cell membranes; C. Nucleoids; D. Capsules

B. Cell membranes

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 14] Beta-lactam antibiotics bind to _____ and inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking. A. DNA gyrase; B. Penicillin-binding proteins; C. Ribosomal RNA; D. Folate enzymes

B. Penicillin-binding proteins, including transpeptidases

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 15] Which chemical disinfectants disrupt membranes and may be used as antiseptics or mouth rinses? A. Biguanides; B. Aldehydes; C. Heavy metals; D. Peroxygens

A. Biguanides

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 16] Which disinfectants are registered as hospital disinfectants with additional potency against HIV and HBV? A. Low-level; B. Intermediate-level; C. High-level; D. Sporicidal

A. Low-level disinfectants

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.1] What is the primary bacterial target of tetracyclines? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.2] What is the primary bacterial target of aminoglycosides? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.3] What is the primary bacterial target of macrolides? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.4] What is the primary bacterial target of cephalosporins? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.5] What is the primary bacterial target of rifampin? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.6] What is the primary bacterial target of chloramphenicol? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.7] What is the primary bacterial target of carbapenems? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 17.8] What is the primary bacterial target of lincosamides? A. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal protein synthesis; B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis; C. Inhibition of bacterial cell-wall synthesis; D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA synthesis; E. Disruption of bacterial cell membranes

B. Inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 18] Which organic chemical agents can sterilize by cross-linking proteins and disrupting enzymes, with some killing spores after at least 10 hours? A. Alcohols; B. Aldehydes; C. Phenolics; D. Quaternary ammonium compounds

B. Aldehydes

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 19] The capacity of a pathogen to cause disease in a host is called _____. A. Pathogenicity; B. Virulence; C. Toxicity; D. Infectivity

B. Virulence

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 20] MRSA is primarily resistant to methicillin through an efflux pump that removes the antibiotic from its cytoplasm. A. True; B. False

B. False — MRSA primarily produces the altered penicillin-binding protein PBP2a

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 21] Which disinfectants inactivate vegetative bacteria, mycobacteria, fungi, viruses, and—with sufficient exposure—spores? A. Low-level; B. Intermediate-level; C. High-level; D. Household

C. High-level disinfectants

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 22] MRSA is primarily resistant to methicillin through an enzyme that cleaves and inactivates methicillin. A. True; B. False

B. False — MRSA primarily produces the altered penicillin-binding protein PBP2a

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 23] MRSA is primarily resistant to methicillin through a spontaneous mutation that changes the antibiotic target-binding site. A. True; B. False

B. False — resistance usually involves acquisition of mecA or mecC encoding PBP2a

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 24] Which halogen antimicrobial oxidizes and denatures proteins and may be used as a topical antiseptic? A. Iodine; B. Phenol; C. Glutaraldehyde; D. Chlorhexidine

A. Iodine

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 25] Which term means bacteria in the blood? A. Septicemia; B. Bacteremia; C. Viremia; D. Toxemia

B. Bacteremia

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 26] Which agents are generally low-level disinfectants but become tuberculocidal and active against enveloped viruses when combined with alcohol, while remaining nonsporicidal? A. Aldehydes; B. Quaternary ammonium compounds; C. Halogens; D. Peroxygens

B. Quaternary ammonium compounds

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 27] Which enzymes made by bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus cleave and inactivate first-line penicillins? A. Transpeptidases; B. Beta-lactamases; C. DNA polymerases; D. Catalases

B. Beta-lactamases, including penicillinases

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 28] A pathogen that normally does not cause disease in a healthy host but can when defenses are compromised is called _____. A. Primary; B. Obligate; C. Opportunistic; D. Zoonotic

C. Opportunistic pathogen

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 29] Which sterilant gas has high penetration and is suitable for materials that cannot tolerate moisture or heat? A. Carbon dioxide; B. Ethylene oxide; C. Nitrogen; D. Oxygen

B. Ethylene oxide

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 30] Ciprofloxacin is a _____ antibiotic that targets DNA gyrase and inhibits bacterial DNA replication. A. Macrolide; B. Fluoroquinolone; C. Beta-lactam; D. Tetracycline

B. Fluoroquinolone

[Disinfectants, Infection, and Antibiotics — 31] Which virus type is usually more resistant to disinfection? A. Non-enveloped viruses; B. Enveloped viruses

A. Non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 1] A cell that a virus can successfully infect and replicate within is called a _____ cell. A. Resistant; B. Permissive; C. Prokaryotic; D. Latent

B. Permissive cell

[Viral Replication — 2] Which term describes the target cell type, tissue, or species that a virus can infect? A. Virulence; B. Tropism; C. Pathogenicity; D. Neutralization

B. Tropism

[Viral Replication — 3] What is the correct order of the six basic steps of viral replication? A. Penetration → Attachment → Synthesis → Uncoating → Release → Assembly; B. Attachment → Penetration → Uncoating → Synthesis → Assembly → Release; C. Attachment → Synthesis → Penetration → Assembly → Uncoating → Release; D. Uncoating → Attachment → Penetration → Synthesis → Release → Assembly

B. Attachment → Penetration or entry → Uncoating → Synthesis → Assembly or maturation → Release

[Viral Replication — 4] Which cellular component reads mRNA to make protein? A. Lysosome; B. Ribosome; C. Nucleus; D. Golgi apparatus

B. Ribosome

[Viral Replication — 5] What is the third step in the basic viral life cycle? A. Attachment; B. Penetration; C. Uncoating; D. Synthesis

C. Uncoating

[Viral Replication — 6.1] Which viruses can undergo membrane fusion at the plasma membrane to enter a cell? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

A. Enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.2] Which viruses are generally more resistant to the low pH of the stomach? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

B. Non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.3] Which viruses can contain RNA as their nucleic acid? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.4] Which viruses can contain DNA as their nucleic acid? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.5] Which viruses can be released from a cell through budding? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

A. Enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.6] Which viruses are characteristically released from a cell through lysis? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

B. Non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.7] Which viruses can be released from a cell through exocytosis? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.8] Which viruses can enter a cell through receptor-mediated endocytosis? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.9] Which viruses have an outermost layer composed primarily of lipids? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

A. Enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.10] Which viruses can be neutralized when antibodies bind to viral attachment proteins? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.11] Which viruses have a replication cycle that begins with attachment? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.12] Which viruses must uncoat their genomes during replication? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.13] Which viruses generally spread more easily through contaminated objects or fomites? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

B. Non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.14] Which viruses generally enter animal cells only through receptor-mediated endocytosis rather than membrane fusion? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

B. Non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.15] Which viruses must use host-cell ribosomes for protein synthesis? A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 6.16] All medically important negative-sense single-stranded RNA viruses are _____. A. Enveloped viruses; B. Non-enveloped viruses; C. Both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

A. Enveloped viruses

[Viral Replication — 7.1] Which polymerase performs normal eukaryotic transcription? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 7.2] Which polymerase is used for genome replication of DNA viruses? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 7.3] Which polymerase is generally used for genome replication of RNA viruses? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 7.4] Which polymerase performs the first synthesis step for retroviruses? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, also called reverse transcriptase

[Viral Replication — 7.5] Which polymerase performs transcription of DNA viruses? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 7.6] Which polymerase performs the final genome-replication step for hepadnaviruses such as hepatitis B virus? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, or reverse transcriptase

[Viral Replication — 7.7] Which polymerase produces new HIV RNA genomes and HIV mRNA from integrated proviral DNA? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 7.8] Which polymerase performs the first genome-replication step for negative-sense single-stranded RNA viruses? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 7.9] Which polymerase performs the first polymerase-dependent genome-replication step for positive-sense single-stranded RNA viruses? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 7.10] Which polymerase performs the first genome-replication step for hepadnaviruses such as hepatitis B virus? A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase or reverse transcriptase

B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

[Viral Replication — 8] Where does genome replication of most RNA viruses occur? A. Nucleus; B. Cytoplasm; C. Golgi apparatus; D. Lysosome

B. Cytoplasm

[Viral Replication — 9] The Baltimore classification groups viruses according to the pathways used to produce _____ from different genomic nucleic acids. A. DNA; B. Lipids; C. mRNA; D. Peptidoglycan

C. mRNA

[Viral Replication — 10] What is the antibody-mediated inhibition of viral infection that prevents a virus from binding cellular receptors? A. Opsonization; B. Neutralization; C. Uncoating; D. Budding

B. Neutralization

[Viral Replication — 11] What is the protein covering surrounding a virus's nucleic acid? A. Envelope; B. Capsid; C. Cell wall; D. Plasma membrane

B. Capsid

[Viral Replication — 12] What is the general name for the cellular component bound by a viral attachment protein at the start of replication? A. Receptor; B. Ribosome; C. Capsomere; D. Polymerase

A. Receptor

[Viral Replication — 13] Which viral-release mechanism causes a host cell to burst and release progeny viruses? A. Budding; B. Exocytosis; C. Lysis; D. Fusion

C. Lysis

[Viral Replication — 14] What is the process of making protein from mRNA? A. Transcription; B. Replication; C. Translation; D. Reverse transcription

C. Translation

[Viral Replication — 15] Where does genome replication of most DNA viruses occur? A. Cytoplasm; B. Nucleus; C. Cell membrane; D. Golgi apparatus

B. Nucleus