Lecture 58 – Applications in Molecular Genetics I: Cytogenetics and Gene Amplification

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41 Terms

1
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What are the three main categories of genetic testing?

Detecting cytogenetic abnormalities, detecting known mutations, and detecting new mutations.

2
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Define chromosomal karyotyping.

A cytogenetic technique used to analyze the number and morphology of nuclear chromosomes in a cell.

3
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How are metaphase chromosomes grouped in karyotyping?

By size (largest to smallest) and centromere position (metacentric, submetacentric, acrocentric).

4
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Which arm of a chromosome is shorter: p or q?

The p arm is short; the q arm is long.

5
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What is the resolution of a standard G-banded karyotype?

Approximately 450–550 bands; detects changes >5–10 Mb (~150 genes).

6
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List applications of karyotyping.

Detects aneuploidies (e.g., trisomies, Turner syndrome), large structural changes, and chromosomal translocations (e.g., Philadelphia chromosome).

7
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What is G-banding?

Chromosome staining using trypsin and Giemsa; dark bands (heterochromatin) are gene-poor, light bands (euchromatin) are gene-rich.

8
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Why are dividing cells required for G-banding?

Chromosomes must be in metaphase for visualization.

9
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What does high-resolution chromosomal banding allow?

More detailed banding (550–850 bands) by arresting cells in prometaphase or prophase; detects smaller deletions.

10
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When is high-resolution karyotyping indicated?

Unexplained congenital anomalies, developmental delay, and dysmorphic features.

11
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Define fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH).

A fluorescence-based technique for detecting and localizing specific DNA sequences on chromosomes using labeled probes.

12
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What are the main steps of FISH?

Prepare and label probe → denature probe and target DNA → hybridize → visualize under fluorescent microscope.

13
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What is the typical result pattern in FISH?

Each homologous chromosome pair shows two fluorescent dots for the target sequence.

14
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What are the advantages of FISH over G-banding?

Higher sensitivity and resolution (~2 Mb); detects microdeletions, microduplications, and derivative chromosomes.

15
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When is interphase FISH used?

For rapid (<24 h) diagnosis from nondividing cells such as amniotic fluid, tissue sections, or mucosal swabs.

16
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List examples of aneuploidies detectable by interphase FISH.

Trisomy 21, 18, 13, and sex chromosome abnormalities (X/Y).

17
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What is spectral karyotyping (SKY)?

A multicolor fluorescence method where each chromosome pair is uniquely labeled for automated karyotype analysis.

18
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What are SKY’s applications?

Identifying marker chromosomes, complex rearrangements, and translocations.

19
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Define array-based comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH).

A genome-wide assay comparing patient and reference DNA hybridized to microarray spots to detect copy number variations.

20
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What does aCGH measure?

Relative copy number changes, but not chromosomal location or balanced rearrangements.

21
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What resolution can aCGH achieve?

Down to 25–250 Kb.

22
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Why should aCGH findings be confirmed by FISH or karyotyping?

Because aCGH cannot detect balanced rearrangements (e.g., inversions, translocations).

23
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What is molecular cloning?

A recombinant DNA technique to amplify or express a specific DNA sequence in a host organism.

24
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What enzyme is essential for molecular cloning?

Restriction endonucleases that cleave double-stranded DNA at specific palindromic sequences.

25
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What are “sticky ends”?

Single-stranded overhangs generated by restriction enzymes to facilitate ligation of DNA fragments.

26
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What is a cloning vector?

A DNA molecule capable of autonomous replication in a host cell (e.g., plasmid).

27
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List key features of plasmid cloning vectors.

Origin of replication, restriction sites, and selectable markers (e.g., antibiotic resistance).

28
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Give an example of a disease detected using restriction analysis.

Muenke syndrome, caused by a mutation in FGFR3 that creates a new restriction site.

29
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Differentiate genomic vs. cDNA library.

Genomic library: includes entire genome (coding + noncoding). cDNA library: made from mRNA, includes only expressed genes.

30
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What are recombinant expression systems used for?

Producing large amounts of human proteins (e.g., insulin, growth factors) using bacterial, yeast, or mammalian cells.

31
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Define polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

A technique to exponentially amplify DNA from a small clinical sample using thermostable DNA polymerase.

32
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List the main steps of PCR.

Denaturation (strand separation) → annealing (primer binding) → extension (DNA synthesis).

33
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Which enzyme is critical for PCR?

Taq polymerase or another thermostable DNA polymerase.

34
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How many PCR cycles are typically run?

~30–35 cycles, yielding billions of copies of the target sequence.

35
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What is required to perform PCR?

Template DNA, primers, dNTPs, buffer, and thermostable polymerase.

36
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How are PCR products analyzed?

By agarose gel electrophoresis, separating DNA fragments by size.

37
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Which electrode does DNA migrate toward in gel electrophoresis?

Positive electrode (anode), since DNA is negatively charged.

38
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What is quantitative real-time PCR (qPCR)?

A PCR technique that monitors amplification in real time to measure DNA quantity.

39
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Differentiate qPCR and RT-PCR.

qPCR quantifies DNA; RT-PCR uses reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into cDNA for amplification.

40
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List clinical applications of PCR.

Detection of infectious agents (e.g., viral genomes in blood), genetic mutations, and forensic DNA profiling.

41
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What are advantages of PCR-based methods?

Rapid, highly sensitive, requires minimal sample material.