Adult Health 1 Exam 3 AI GENERATED Flashcards from notes/book/lecture

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Last updated 12:05 PM on 9/18/26
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290 Terms

1
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What is obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A sleep-related disorder caused by partial or complete airway collapse that interrupts ventilation, causing hypoxia and lack of sleep.

2
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What are common symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea?

Fatigue, daytime sleepiness, headaches, waking gasping/choking, difficulty concentrating, irritability, depression, and memory problems.

3
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What conditions are associated with obstructive sleep apnea?

Hypertension, other cardiovascular disorders, insulin resistance, stroke, and cognitive impairment such as dementia.

4
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What are nonsurgical treatments for obstructive sleep apnea?

Change sleep position, elevate HOB, weight loss, positive-pressure ventilation, and position-fixing devices.

5
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What is UPPP?

Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty; a collection of procedures used to remodel the posterior oropharynx to resolve OSA.

6
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What can happen with a displaced nasal fracture?

Airway obstruction, cosmetic deformity, or infection.

7
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What drainage from the nose after a nasal fracture may indicate a serious injury?

Clear fluid may be CSF and can indicate a skull fracture.

8
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How can CSF drainage from the nose be identified?

CSF contains glucose and tests positive with a glucose dipstick; when dried on filter paper, it produces a yellow "halo."

9
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How is a simple displaced nasal fracture treated?

A simple closed reduction is performed within the first 24 hours using local or general anesthesia.

10
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What is rhinoplasty?

Surgical repair of a fractured nose or reconstruction to improve function or appearance.

11
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What is nasoseptoplasty/SMR?

Surgery to straighten a deviated septum by removing or reshaping the deviated cartilage and bone.

12
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What is the priority action with facial trauma?

Assess the airway.

13
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What should be assessed after the airway is established in facial trauma?

Bleeding, obvious fractures, soft-tissue edema, facial asymmetry, pain, and CSF leakage from the ears or nose.

14
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Why are vision and eye movements assessed after facial trauma?

Orbital and maxillary fractures can entrap eye nerves and muscles.

15
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What is Battle sign?

Extensive bruising behind the ears that is often associated with skull fracture and brain trauma.

16
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What diagnostic imaging may be obtained for facial trauma?

Cranial CT, facial series, and cervical spine x-rays.

17
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What are manifestations of facial trauma that may indicate airway/gas-exchange problems?

Stridor, dyspnea, anxiety/restlessness, hypoxia, hypercarbia, decreased SpO₂, and cyanosis.

18
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When is a tracheotomy used?

For a patient who cannot be easily intubated with an endotracheal tube.

19
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What is a cricothyroidotomy?

An emergency airway procedure through the cricothyroid membrane between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages.

20
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When is a cricothyroidotomy used?

When it is the only way to secure an airway.

21
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Why are fractured jaws placed in fixed occlusion?

To allow the teeth to heal in proper alignment.

22
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How long may fixed jaw occlusion remain in place?

6-10 weeks.

23
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What can cause jawbone infection after a fracture?

Treatment delay, tooth infection, or poor oral care.

24
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How are extensive jaw fractures treated?

They may require open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) using compression or reconstruction plates and screws.

25
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What may be required if facial wounds are present with jaw fractures?

Debridement.

26
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What type of cancer are head and neck cancers usually?

Squamous cell carcinomas.

27
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What are the two initial lesion types associated with head and neck cancer?

Leukoplakia = white, patchy lesions; erythroplakia = red, velvety patches.

28
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Where does head and neck cancer usually spread first?

Local lymph nodes, muscle, and bone.

29
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Where can head and neck cancer spread later?

Distant sites, usually the lungs or liver.

30
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What are warning signs of head and neck cancer?

Pain; mouth/throat/neck lump; difficulty swallowing; mouth/tongue color changes; nonhealing sore >2 weeks; oral bleeding; numbness; denture-fit changes; burning with citrus/hot liquids; unilateral ear pain; hoarseness/voice changes; recurrent sore throat; SOB; anorexia and weight loss.

31
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What is the priority concern with head and neck cancer?

Airway obstruction; airway assessment is a priority.

32
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How can gas exchange be supported in head and neck cancer?

Position changes, oxygen as ordered, hydration, and humidification.

33
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What psychosocial problems can occur with head and neck cancer?

Anxiety and decreased self-esteem, especially because surgery can cause drastic changes and inability to talk.

34
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What treatments may be used for head and neck cancer?

Radiation, chemotherapy, surgery, or combinations of these.

35
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What chemotherapy drugs are commonly included in head and neck cancer regimens?

Cisplatin or another platinum-based drug combined with 5-FU.

36
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What causes epistaxis?

Trauma to nasal mucosa, hypertension, blood dyscrasias, inflammation, tumor, decreased humidity, nose blowing, nose picking, chronic cocaine use, and NG suctioning.

37
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Where does epistaxis most often occur in older adults?

The posterior portion of the nose.

38
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Why is posterior epistaxis especially concerning?

It may be more severe and harder to control and creates a greater risk for airway compromise.

39
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How can posterior epistaxis be treated?

Posterior packing, epistaxis catheters, gel tampons, cauterization, vessel ligation, or embolization.

40
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What can happen if posterior nasal packing becomes dislodged?

Airway obstruction and reduced gas exchange.

41
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What happens after a partial versus total laryngectomy?

A partial laryngectomy requires a temporary tracheostomy; a total laryngectomy creates a permanent laryngectomy stoma.

42
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What is removed during a supraglottic partial laryngectomy?

Hyoid bone, false cords, and epiglottis; remaining voice may be normal or hoarse.

43
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What is removed during a hemilaryngectomy/vertical laryngectomy?

One true cord, one false cord, and half of the thyroid cartilage; remaining voice is hoarse.

44
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What is removed during a total laryngectomy?

The entire larynx, hyoid bone, strap muscles, and one or two tracheal rings; there is no natural voice afterward.

45
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What are major complications after laryngectomy?

Airway obstruction, hemorrhage, wound breakdown, and tumor recurrence.

46
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What are the first priorities after head and neck surgery?

Maintain the airway and ensure gas exchange.

47
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Why is a tracheostomy collar used after laryngectomy?

It provides oxygen and humidity to help move mucus secretions.

48
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What is expected about secretions immediately after laryngectomy?

Secretions may remain blood-tinged for 1-2 days; increased bleeding should be reported.

49
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How is a total laryngectomy stoma cared for?

Inspect the stoma and clean the suture line with sterile saline or prescribed solution to prevent crusting and airway obstruction.

50
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What should a healthy laryngectomy stoma look like?

Bright pink, shiny, and free of crusts.

51
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What is a tissue flap after head and neck surgery?

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, and sometimes muscle taken from another body area for reconstruction.

52
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How is wound breakdown after laryngectomy managed?

Packing and local care as prescribed to keep the wound clean and promote healthy granulation tissue.

53
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How is pain commonly managed immediately after laryngectomy?

IV morphine through a PCA pump is often used for the first 1-2 days; liquid opioids may later be given through a feeding tube.

54
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Why may an NG, gastrostomy, or jejunostomy tube be placed during laryngectomy?

For nutritional support while the head and neck heal; it may remain 7-10 days and is removed when the patient can swallow safely.

55
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Can aspiration occur after a total laryngectomy?

No. The airway is completely separated from the esophagus.

56
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How should communication be addressed after laryngectomy?

Work with the patient, family, and SLP to develop an acceptable communication method.

57
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What is asthma?

A chronic disease with intermittent reversible airflow obstruction caused by inflammation and airway hyperresponsiveness with bronchoconstriction.

58
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What can trigger asthma?

Inflammation, chemicals, allergic reactions, smoke, dust, mold, weather changes, aspirin/NSAIDs, GERD, stress, and hormonal changes.

59
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Why can aspirin and NSAIDs trigger asthma?

They increase production of leukotrienes.

60
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What asthma symptoms are assessed for control?

Daytime wheezing/dyspnea/coughing >2 times weekly, nighttime symptoms, rescue-drug use >2 times weekly, and activity limitation.

61
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What is controlled asthma?

None of the listed symptoms are present.

62
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What is partly controlled asthma?

1-2 of the listed symptoms are present.

63
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What is uncontrolled asthma?

3-4 of the listed symptoms are present.

64
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What are the goals of asthma therapy?

Control/prevent episodes, improve airflow and gas exchange, and relieve symptoms.

65
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What is the asthma action plan?

A plan involving drug therapy and lifestyle management to help the patient understand and manage asthma.

66
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What is control therapy for asthma?

Preventive therapy used every day regardless of symptoms to change airway responsiveness and prevent attacks.

67
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What are reliever drugs for asthma?

Rescue drugs used to stop an attack after it has started.

68
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What is oxygen used for in respiratory disease?

To correct hypoxemia; the document lists a goal of maintaining SpO₂ >93%.

69
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What are SABA examples?

Albuterol and levalbuterol.

70
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What do SABA drugs do?

Relax bronchial smooth muscle, relieve acute symptoms/bronchospasm, prevent exercise-induced asthma, and treat impending attacks.

71
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What are common SABA side effects?

Tremor, anxiety, tachycardia, palpitations, dysrhythmias, hypertension, hypokalemia, throat irritation, bronchospasm, and refractory asthma.

72
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What should patients know about albuterol/levalbuterol?

Carry it at all times; monitor heart rate; when using other inhaled medications, use albuterol/levalbuterol at least 5 minutes before the other inhaled medication.

73
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What are anticholinergic respiratory drugs?

Ipratropium and tiotropium.

74
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What do anticholinergics do?

Relax bronchial smooth muscle, relieve bronchospasm, and prevent attacks.

75
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What are common anticholinergic side effects?

Dry mouth, bitter taste, bronchoconstriction, and palpitations; tachycardia occurs less often than with beta₂ agonists.

76
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What teaching is important for anticholinergics?

Shake the MDI, increase daily fluids for dry mouth, and report blurred vision, eye pain, headache, nausea, palpitations, tremors, or inability to sleep.

77
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What do inhaled corticosteroids such as fluticasone and beclomethasone do?

Reverse airway inflammation and open the airways.

78
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What are important corticosteroid inhaler teaching points?

Use daily even without symptoms, expect maximum effectiveness after 48-72 hours, practice mouth care, check for oral lesions/drainage, and rinse the mouth after use.

79
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Why are inhaled corticosteroids not rescue medications?

They have a slow onset and do not relieve acute symptoms.

80
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What does prednisone do for asthma?

Reduces airway inflammation and helps open the airways.

81
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What are important prednisone side effects?

Systemic immunosuppression, increased infection risk, hyperglycemia, GI ulceration, bruising, and petechiae.

82
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What should patients taking prednisone avoid/do?

Avoid people with upper respiratory infections, avoid activities that could cause injury, take with food, and never stop suddenly.

83
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What is a LABA?

A long-acting beta₂ agonist that relaxes bronchiolar smooth muscle, has slow onset and long duration, and prevents attacks rather than treating acute attacks; example: salmeterol.

84
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What do leukotriene modifiers do?

Block inflammatory mediators and prevent asthma attacks triggered by inflammation or allergens; example: montelukast.

85
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How should an MDI be used?

Shake for 5 seconds between inhalations, inhale through the mouth, keep tongue under the mouthpiece, inhale slowly/deeply while pressing the canister, hold breath 5-10 seconds, then exhale.

86
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When can a spacer be used with an MDI?

When the patient has difficulty timing the spray with inhalation.

87
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What is emphysema?

A destructive problem of lung elastic tissue that reduces recoil, causes hyperinflation, dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, and reduced gas-exchange area from loss of alveolar tissue.

88
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What is chronic bronchitis?

Inflammation of the bronchi/bronchioles with increased mucus and a chronic productive cough for at least 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years.

89
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What is a key difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis?

Emphysema primarily involves destructive loss of alveolar tissue; chronic bronchitis affects the airways and involves mucus and inflammation.

90
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What happens to ABGs as COPD worsens?

Hypoxemia and hypercapnia develop, causing chronic respiratory acidosis; metabolic alkalosis occurs as renal compensation through bicarbonate retention.

91
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What does advanced emphysema look like on chest x-ray?

Hyperinflation, widely spaced ribs, and a flattened diaphragm.

92
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What may happen to H&H/RBCs in COPD?

They may increase to compensate for oxygen needs.

93
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What should be assessed in a COPD history?

Family history, smoking/pack-years, occupational/environmental exposure, cough, sputum, activity tolerance, nutrition/fluid intake, and sleep position/orthopnea.

94
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What are common COPD assessment findings?

Thin appearance, muscle loss, slow/stooped movement, tripod positioning, rapid/shallow breathing, accessory muscle use, wheezing, decreased breath sounds, barrel chest, cyanosis, delayed capillary refill, clubbing, and dyspnea.

95
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What does a respiratory rate of 40-50/min indicate in COPD?

An emergency.

96
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What does a silent chest indicate?

Serious obstruction or pneumothorax.

97
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What can occur with severe COPD involving the heart?

Ankle/foot edema may occur with right-sided heart failure.

98
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What are COPD treatments?

Breathing techniques, effective coughing/positioning, oxygen therapy, smoking cessation, hydration, pulmonary rehabilitation, dietitian support, small frequent high-calorie/high-protein meals, energy conservation, assistance with ADLs, and vaccinations.

99
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What surgical treatments are listed for COPD?

Lung transplantation and lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS).

100
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What does LVRS do?

Removes hyperinflated lung tissue that traps stagnant air to improve gas exchange.