NSCA CSCS EXAM REVIEW

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104 Terms

1
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Which of the following substances regulates muscle actions?

calcium

2
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Which of the following substances acts at the NMJ to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit?

acetylcholine

3
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When throwing a baseball, an athlete's arm is rapidly stretched just before throwing the ball. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity?

muscle spindle

4
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From which of the following is the heart's electrical impulse normally initiated?

SA node

5
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Which of the following occurs during the QRS complex of a typical ECG?

1. depolarization of the atrium

2. repolarization of the atrium

3. repolarization of the ventricle

4. depolarization of the ventricle

b. 2 and 4 only

6
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Which of the following is the definition of power?

force x velocity

7
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To compare performances of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's

body weight to the two-thirds power

8
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During a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following?

1. perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint

2. joint angle

3. movement acceleration

4. movement velocity squared

a. 1 and 2 only (perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint AND joint angle)

9
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An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of lever occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise?

1. 1st class

2. 2nd class

3. 3rd class

c. 1 and 3 only

10
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Which of the following reactions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)?

ATP = ADP + Pi + H+

11
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Approximately how many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of 1 molecule?

38

12
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Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations?

ATP

13
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After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body EXCEPT

energy expended

14
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Which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural change?

testosterone

15
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What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session?

a. 30s rest, high volume, 3 sets

16
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Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of

1. increased agonist muscle recruitment

2. muscle hypertrophy

3. improved firing rate

4. greater synchronization

d. 1, 3, and 4 only

17
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When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment?

I

18
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Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations?

sleep disturbances

19
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Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus?

fast-twitch fiber CSA

20
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Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would NOT be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise?

reduced SR and T-tubule density

21
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In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density (BMD) levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport?

a 19 year old 800m freestyle swimmer with one year of dryland training

22
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A 17 year old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscles during that time?

hypertrophy of Type I fibers

23
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The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the

stroke volume

24
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Which of the following does NOT normally increase during an aerobic exercise session?

diastolic blood pressure

25
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The mean arterial pressure is defines as the

average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle

26
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Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following?

1. increased maximal oxygen uptake

2. decreased blood lactate concentration

3. increased running economy

4. decreased capillary density

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

27
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An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six-month resistance training program. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for this gain?

improved neuromuscular functioning

28
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Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following EXCEPT the

diaphysis

29
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The condition characterized by a bone mineral density > 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called

osteoporosis

30
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Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when one is designing a training program for a 68-year-old competitive tennis player?

medical history

31
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Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be at increased risk for developing injuries to the

knee

32
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An Olympic weightlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise?

selective attention

33
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An athlete's desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of

achievement motivation

34
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How does an athlete's optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity?

decreases

35
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In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration?

practice dip, the drive, & catch independently before practicing the entire push press

36
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Maintaining adequate glycogen stores

spares use of protein for energy

37
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Which of the following BEST explains the need for increased protein intake for athletes?

increased need for tissue repair

38
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Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids?

replace saturated fatty acids w/ monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids

39
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Which of the following makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure?

resting metabolic rate

40
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Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

preoccupation with food

41
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When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should

encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist

42
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To maintain hydration during a competition lasting less than 1 hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3-8 ounces of water or a sports drink about every

15 minutes

43
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Which of the following dietary supplements is (are) considered a stimulant?

1. creatine

2. caffeine

3. HMB

4. citrus aurantium

b. 2 and 4

44
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Which of the following is NOT part of caffeine's role in improving athletic performance?

decreased urine production

45
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Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use?

may cause unregulared increase in RBC production

46
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When measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results?

1. using multiple tests

2. retesting at a different time of day

3. an athlete's inexperience with tested exercise

4. using established testing protocol

1, 2, and 3

47
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All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's CV fitness in the heat EXCEPT

using salt tablets to retain water

48
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Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results?

T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile run

49
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Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting

30-90s

50
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Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximum muscular power?

40-yd (37m) sprint

51
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Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test?

1. hamstrings

2. erector spinae

3. lumbar spine

4. hip flexors

a. 1 and 3 only

52
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Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified?

crossing the feet from cone B to cone C

53
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When compiling results from the volleyball team's vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is more appropriate for this group?

median

54
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Which of the following is a non-temperature-related effect of a warm up?

elevation of baseline oxygen consumption

55
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When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the

stretched muscle by its own contraction

56
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Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation?

static

57
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Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a

contraction of the stretched muscle

58
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After performing the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility?

1. autogenic inhibition

2. stretch inhibition

3. reciprocal inhibition

4. crossed-extensor inhibition

a. 1 and 3 only

autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition

59
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During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's forearms near the wrists?

incline DB bench press

60
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Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift exercise?

1. overhand

2. closed

3. open

4. alternated

c. 1, 2, and 4 only

overhand, closed, alternated

61
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Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise?

b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot

62
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The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is

hip extension

63
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If during the tire flip the athlete's hips rise faster than the shoulders during the initial pushing motion, what is an effective correction to give the athlete?

start with higher hip position

64
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If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen?

a bilateral facilitation will occur

65
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With regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied?

in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury

66
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Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods?

to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises

67
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Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than ___ of what can be achieved in stable condition.

70%

68
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The basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance exercises are MOST specific to this goal?

1. power clean

2. leg (knee curl)

3. front squat

4. seated calf (heel) raise

a. 1 and 3 only

power clean and front squat

69
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The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team's resistance training frequency be altered?

decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice

70
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An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance?

power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl

71
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Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST?

5 sets x 5 reps

72
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A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using 3 sets x 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will MAXIMIZE her goal?

30s

73
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Which of the following is NOT a phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

isometric

74
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Which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex?

muscle spindle

75
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Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program?

1. balance

2. strength

3. training history

4. lean body mass

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

balance, strength, training history, LBM

76
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Which of the following types of plyometric drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense?

depth jumps

77
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Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training workout?

1:5

78
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What does the term impulse refer to?

the relationship between force and time

79
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Elite sprinters produce ________ forces in a ________ ground contact time as compared to their novice counterparts.

larger, shorter

80
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In upright sprinting, an athlete's stride length is largely dependent on _____.

the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase

81
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Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following?

agility

82
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Select the aspect of training that requires additional emphasis when the aim is to improve change-of-direction ability.

eccentric strength

83
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Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance training program?

1. increased oxygen delivery to working tissues

2. higher rate of aerobic energy production

3. greater utilization of fat as a fuel source

4. increased disturbance of the acid-base balance

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

increased oxygen delivery to working tissues

higher rate of aerobic energy production

greater utilization of fat as a fuel source

84
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Which of the following types of training loads is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold?

pace/tempo

85
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Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity?

heart rate

86
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The loss of physiological adaptations upon the cessation of training is an example of

detraining

87
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The longest aerobic endurance training sessions should be performed during which of the following sport seasons?

off-season

88
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During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome does the body physiologically adapt to heavier training loads?

resistance

89
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When relating the season terminology to periodization periods, which season corresponds to the preparatory period of training?

off-season

90
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During which of the following periods are sport-specific activities performed in the greatest volume?

competition

91
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The medium-sized training cycle that lasts two to six weeks in duration is referred to as a

1. block of training

2. macrocycle

3. microcycle

4. mesocycle

b. 1 and 4 only

92
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Which of the following phases is (are) commonly used to vary workouts during the preparatory period?

1. hypertrophy

2. cardiovascular

3. basic strength

4. supercompensation

a. 1 and 3 only

93
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Which of the following types of activity is inappropriate during the inflammatory response phase of a medial collateral ligament (MCL) sprain?

lower extremity plyometrics

94
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The rotator cuff muscles act as stabilizers to the shoulder joint. During the maturation-remodeling phase of rotator cuff (supraspinatus muscle) tendinitis rehabilitation of a basketball player, what exercise repetition range is MOST appropriate for improving the muscular endurance of the rotator cuff muscles?

12-20

95
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What is the order of the four phases involved in designing a new strength and conditioning facility?

predesign, design, construction, preoperation

96
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A master plan should be created in which of the following phases?

predesign

97
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What is the recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of the mirrors on the walls?

20"

98
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Which of the following is NOT a key consideration when determining the space requirements of a college strength and conditioning facility?

number of athletic teams desiring to use the facility

99
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What is the minimum recommended space between the ends of racks to provide room for spotters?

3 feet

100
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What is the recommended coach-to-participant ratio during peak weight room usage time in a collegiate setting?

1:20