Pre solo Knowledge test personal.

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Last updated 9:40 PM on 7/6/26
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46 Terms

1
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What personal documents and endorsments do you ned before you fly solo?

Medical flight certificate
student pilot certificate
government issued ID
Endorsement for make and mode

2
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What are student pilot limitations regarding carrying passengers?

Cannot earn money carrying passengers, and can't carry passengers without instructor

3
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Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds or fog

Can't fly without visual reference to surface or visibility is less than 3 miles in day or 5 miles night

4
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WHo has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of teh aircraft when you are flying solo?

Me, The pilot in command

5
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During run up you cause debris and propeller blast to be directed toward another aircraft could this be considered careless or reckless operation?

Yes, no person may operate aircraft in careless or reckless manner

6
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You may not fly as a pilot of a civil aircraft with ___ hours after consumpotion of any alcoholic beverage, or while you have ___% by weight or more alcohol in your blood.

8, .04

7
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What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses?

Must be briefed on use. May not taxi/takeoff/land without.

8
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What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based?

need enough fuel to get to first point including 30 minutes day or 45 minutes night based on normal cruising speed

9
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A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above _____ feet MSL, excluding that airspace at and below ____ feet AGL.

10,000;1200

10
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What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo?

Airworthiness
registration
radio licsence international
operating handbook
weight and balance

11
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Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time?

The aircraft with the lowest altitude.

12
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What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the right-of-way? b) What should you do if you are flying a head-on collision course with another aircraft?
c) If another single-engine aircraft is converging from the right, who has the right-of-way?

a) The aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft should alter course to the right.
b) Each aircraft should alter course to the right.
c) The aircraft on the right has the right-of-way.

13
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Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes when flying over congested and other than congested areas?

Congested area: 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000 foot radius of the aircraft.
Other than congested area: 500 feet above surface, or from any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure.

14
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If an altimeter setting is not available at an airport, what setting should you use before departing on a local flight?

Setting of station along route within 100 nm of aircraft, or airport elevation.

15
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What altitudes should you use when operating under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3,000 feet AGL?

(1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500); or

(2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500).

16
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When practicing steep turns, stalls, and maneuvering during slow flight, the entry altitude must allow a recovery to be completed no lower than _____ feet AGL.

1,500

17
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When is a go-around appropriate?


whenever PIC feels they can't properly make the runway or have a safe landing

18
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What general steps should you follow after an engine failure in flight?

Best glide speed, fuel pump gas instruments throttle mixture carb heat on ignition switch on follow engine failure checklist

19
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List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight.

Altimeter
Tachometer (each engine)
Oil Temperature Gauge (air-cooled aircraft and for each engine)
Manifold Pressure Gauge (each altitude engine)
Airpseed Indicator
Temperature Gauge (each liquid cooled engine)
Oil Pressure Gauge (when using a pressure system)

Flotation Gear (for hire/beyond power off glide distance to shore)
Fuel Indicator (each system)
Landing Gear Indicator (if retractable)
Anti-Collision Lights
Magnetic Compass
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)
Safety Belts/Shoulder Harness (for each seat)
(ATOMATO FLAMES)

20
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What does Vso mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

Stall speed (flaps landing configuration): 47 KIAS

21
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What does Vs1 mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

Stall speed (normal configuration): 51 KIAS

22
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What does Vx mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

Best angle of climb speed:60 KIAS

23
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What does Vy mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

Best rate of climb speed: 76 KIAS

24
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What does Vfe mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

Maximum flap extension speed: 110:85

25
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What does Va mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

Maneuvering speed: 99,92,81

26
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What does Vno mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?


Maximum structural cruise speed: 129

27
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What does Vne mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

Never Exceed Speed: 163

28
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What does Vr mean and what is the corresponding speed for your training airplane?

rotation speed: 56

29
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What is the best glide speed for your training airplane?

65

30
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What is the maximum allowable flap setting for takeoff in your aircraft?

10°

31
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The total usable fuel for your airplane is _____ gallons. On a standard day, the fuel

consumption rate during normal cruise is ______ gallons per hour.

53, 4.8

32
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What grade or grades of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft?
b) What are the colors of the recommended fuels?

100LL blue octane

33
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The maximum oil capacity of your airplane is _____ quarts, and minimum capacity to begin a

flight is ______ quarts.

8,6

34
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If your airplane is equipped with a carburetor, when do you use carb heat? What are the

indications of carb icing?

We use carburetor heat when there is carburetor icing. The indications are a drop in RPM.

35
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What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirements must be met prior to entry?

4nm Radius- but airspace is tailored to the area.

Typical height is surface to 2500 AGL

you must have 2 way radio communication and communicate with the tower to enter class D controlled airspace.

36
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Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for Class D airspace.

minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles and a cloud ceiling of at least 1,000 feet above the airport. You must also stay 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal from any clouds.

37
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You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace, and the controller responds with

your callsign and tells you “Standby”. Are you allowed to enter this airspace without any

further instructions?

Since you have established 2-way radio communication and the controller responds with your call sign - Yes you can enter class C. Airspace.

If you don't hear your call sign, you CAN NOT enter the airspace

38
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Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in radar services

mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace?

Inner Circle - 5nm from center, normally SFC-4,000' MSL
Outer Circle - 10nm from center, normally 1,200'-4,000' MSL
Procedural Outer Area - 20nm from center

39
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Describe the Class C boundaries that affect your airport or a nearby airport. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class C airspace inner core surface area and shelf area, as well as the outer area.

In some locations Class C airspace may overlie the Class D surface area of a secondary airport. In order to allow that control tower to provide service to aircraft, portions of the overlapping Class C airspace may be procedurally excluded when the secondary airport tower is in operations. Will not receive Class C services until they have been radar identified and two-way communication established.

40
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In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what other requirements must be met before a student is authorized to fly solo within class B airspace?

A medical flight certificate ground and flight training an endorsed logbook in specific B airspace

41
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Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirements when operating within or

near Class B airspace.

To operate in or near Class B airspace, you must be equipped with an operable Mode C or Mode S transponder that provides automatic pressure altitude reporting. You are also required to have operable ADS-B Out equipment and follow strict procedures for squawking assigned codes and obtaining ATC clearance

42
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YOu have called ATC just prior to entering class B airspace and the controller tells you to "squawk 0355 and ident" are you allowed to enter B airspace?


No, because the controller has to physically tell you your tail number and that you are cleared to enter B airspace

43
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On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

Class E airspace

44
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What are all the light signals?
In flight:
steady green: go ahead and land
flashing green: return for landing
flashing red:airport unsafe don't land
steady red: give way to other aircraft

ON the ground
flashing red: taxi clear of runway
Flashing green: cleared to taxi
white: return to starting point on runway

45
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What is the maximum speed permitted for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? What is the

maximum speed allowed in Class B airspace? What is the maximum speed through a VFR

corridor through Class B airspace?

250,250,200

46
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If you receive ATC instruction that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate an FAR, what should you do?

Refuse the clearance and request an amended clearance telling ATC the concern.