OBGYN EOR Review: Rosh

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
0.0(0)
full-widthCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/86

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

87 Terms

1
New cards

what is the most common side effect of cervical cap/diaphragm?

UTI

2
New cards

what test can be used to definitively diagnose syphilis?

darkfield microscopy

3
New cards

what increases the risk of recurrent mastitis?

tobacco use

4
New cards

Ehler Danlos increases risk for:

cystocele, recurrent miscarriage

5
New cards

at what gestational age do you start to feel fetal movement?

18-20 weeks

6
New cards

colostrum has high levels of what kind of nutrient?

protein

7
New cards

if a newborn baby has ascites and peripheral edema, what is the most likely cause?

Rh incompatibility

8
New cards

if a patient presents with endometritis s/p c section, how should they be treated?

clinda and gentamicin

9
New cards

what is the most common cause of infertility?

anovulation

10
New cards

what should you do for a patient who presents with pre-eclampsia?

close monitoring (unless >160/<100, then intervention is warranted)

11
New cards

"ground glass" cyst is a characteristic finding of what diagnosis?

endometriosis

12
New cards

pruritic bumps in the genital area that are not painful is a characteristic description of what diagnosis?

condyloma acuminata

13
New cards

what is the treatment for nausea without vomiting during pregnancy?

pyridoxine

14
New cards

asthma puts a pregnant patient at risk for what?

preterm labor

15
New cards

which hormone causes uterine ripening?

progesterone

16
New cards

what abx are used to treat chorioamnionitis?

ampicillin and gentamicin

17
New cards

what is the most concerning side effect associated with sue of the ethinyl estradiol + norelgestromin patch?

increased risk of clots

18
New cards

if somebody presents with ovarian cyst rupture, what is the next step?

discharge with pain control

19
New cards

what is the best way to definitively diagnose ovarian torsion?

directly visualize in OR

20
New cards

which is a more common finding in endometriosis: adnexal mass or tender vaginal mass

adnexal mass (ovary is m/c site of endometrioma)

21
New cards

what do you do if a patient presents with PROM at 37 wk gestation?

give oxytocin

22
New cards

if a patient presents with T. vaginalis and is then treated with metronidazole, what patient counseling do you need to give regarding this medication?

they cannot drink ANY alcohol whatsoever

23
New cards

what is the most significant risk factor for breast cancer?

age

24
New cards

what is the most common risk factor for PPROM?

G. vaginalis (BV) infection

25
New cards

how do you treat gestational trophoblastic disease?

single agent chemo

26
New cards

PCOS increases risk for what type of cancer?

endometrial

27
New cards

if an Rh- mother has an Rh+ fetus, what testing is needed?

doppler velocimetry of fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA)

28
New cards

what is the #1 choice of tocolytic?

nifedipine (2nd choice: terbutaline)

29
New cards

tenderness in the posterior fornix on vaginal exam is associated with what diagnosis?

endometriosis

30
New cards

what is the preferred type of episiotomy?

mediolateral

31
New cards

what do you do for a patient diagnosed with CIN2?

repeat PAP and colposcopy in six months

32
New cards

what abx do you use to treat a pregnant patient with gonorrhea and chlamydia?

ceftriaxone + azithromycin

33
New cards

what is the initial treatment for mastitis?

ibuprofen (without abx)

34
New cards

what are the diagnostic criteria for chorioamnionitis?

maternal fever >102F, WBC >15k, FHR >160, purulent amniotic fluid

35
New cards

what is the initial treatment for syphilic?

PCN

36
New cards

what is the treatment regimen for cervicitis?

acyclovir 400mg THREE times daily

37
New cards

what test can be used to assess risk for preterm labor?

fetal fibronectin test

38
New cards

which birth control is contra-indicated during the postpartum period?

OCPs

39
New cards

what electrolyte abnormality is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum?

hypokalemia

40
New cards

what is the treatment for bloating/peripheral edema associated with PMS?

spironolactone

41
New cards

what is considered a positive result for a glucose tolerance test?

blood glucose of 165 after two hours

42
New cards

a patient presents with white/gray discharge, epithelial cells with stippled borders on wet mount - what is the diagnosis?

bacterial vaginosis

43
New cards

what causes dymenorrhea

excess prostaglandin production

44
New cards

what test can be used to confirm a suspected case of PID?

NAAT

45
New cards

during which phase of the menstrual cycle does PMS occur?

end of luteal phase

46
New cards

what is the greatest risk factor for cervical cancer?

HPV

47
New cards

at how many weeks gestation does ectopic pregnancy typically present?

6-8 weeks

48
New cards

how long after NSVD does a patient have to wait until they can have sex?

at leas two weeks

49
New cards

combined postmenopausal hormone therapy increases risk of what cancer?

breast cancer

50
New cards

after treating a pregnant patient for chlamydia, what follow up testing is needed?

test of cure 3-4 weeks after end of treatment

51
New cards

what is the daily calcium supplement requirement for pregnant women?

1000 mg

52
New cards

what type of twin pregnancy has a T sign on ultrasound?

monochorionic diamniotic

53
New cards

what is the initial testing for infertility with no other symptoms?

hysteroscopy and sperm analysis

54
New cards

what is the recommended treatment for adenomyosis?

hormonal IUD

55
New cards

what is the earliest gestational age that gestational trophoblastic disease can be diagnosed?

8 weeks

56
New cards

what is the biggest risk factor for post-partum endometritis?

c-section

57
New cards

how do you assess the therapeutic level for pre-eclampsia treatment?

patellar reflex

58
New cards

what is the most common complication of placental abruption?

DIC

59
New cards

the breast cancer treatment trastuzumab has a black box warning for what?

uterine cancer

60
New cards

what is the most common symptom of fibroids?

menorrhagia

61
New cards

unopposed estrogen (estrogen therapy without progesterone) is not recommended for postmenopausal women due to risk of:

endometrial cancer

62
New cards

what is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea?

gonadal dysgenesis

63
New cards

the smallest dose IUD (13.5mg) is best for what patients?

nulliparous

64
New cards

the smallest dose IUD (52 mg) is best for which patients?

patients with heavy menses (& works for 5 yrs)

65
New cards

what is the first line treatment for vaginal dryness caused by menopause?

vaginal moisturizers and lube

66
New cards

what is the most common symptom of yeast infection?

vulvar pruritis

67
New cards

while trying to get pregnant and during pregnancy, how much folic acid is recommended daily?

4mg

68
New cards

which vitamin excess can be teratogenic and cause fetal malformations?

vitamin A

69
New cards

what is the best treatment for UTI in pregnancy?

fosfomycin

70
New cards

what is the treatment for urge incontinence?

oxybutinin

71
New cards

what lifestyle modifications can help with fibrocystic breast changes?

decreased dietary fat and caffeine intake

72
New cards

what causes increased alpha fetoprotein level?

neural tube defects

73
New cards

at what age does a patient who has not got their period yet require evaluation for primary amenorrhea?

15 y/o

74
New cards

what is the most common adverse effect of an episiotomy?

dyspareunia

75
New cards

what is the most common symptom of menopause?

hot flashes

76
New cards

what is the treatment for fibroids?

progestin-releasing IUD

77
New cards

at what gestational age can the yolk sac be visualized on US?

5 weeks

78
New cards

what is the typical appearance of vulvar cancer?

red and white ulcers

79
New cards

how does S. aureus appear on microscopy?

gm + cocci in clusters

80
New cards

how does secondary syphilis present?

condyloma latum (genital warts), rash on palms and soles, flu-like illness

81
New cards

how does endometrial cancer present?

postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding and endometrial stripe >4mm

82
New cards

what labs should be included in the work up for PMDD?

TSH level

83
New cards

how does chlamydia typically present?

pyuria with no organisms on gram stain

84
New cards

what is seen on wet mount in a patient with BV?

epithelial cells with stippled borders

85
New cards

in a patient diagnosed with breast cancer, what is the best step after histology is completed?

lumpectomy with sentinel node biopsy

86
New cards

what abx are used to treat PID?

cefoxitin and doxycycline

87
New cards

what is the treatment used for fibrocystic breasts?

tamoxifen