MediaLab ASCP BoC Practice Exam - Fall 2022

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is most unreliable when diagnosing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to which blood group system?

Please select the single best answer

ABO

Duffy

Rh

Kidd

ABO

What is the term used to describe the erythrocyte at the tip of the arrow in the image?

Please select the single best answer

Crenated erythrocyte

Spur cell (acanthocyte)

Burr cell (echinocyte)

Teardrop cell (dacryocyte)

A patient has the following serum results:

Na = 130 mEq/L

K = 4.9 mEq/L

Cl = 107 mEq/L

Glucose = 300 mg/dL

BUN = 18 mg/dL

Creatinine = 1.1 mg/dL

Which osmolality result is consistent with these results?.

Note: There are various published versions of this particular equation that will produce slightly different results (choose the value closest to your calculated result).

Please select the single best answer

240 mosmol/kg

251 mosmol/kg

281 mosmol/kg

293 mosmol/kg

What minimum level of specific resistance (megohms@25o C) is required for a Clinical Laboratory Reagent Water (CLRW) system:

Please select the single best answer

10.0

5.0

2.0

0.1

What is the maximum recommended amount of time a specimen without additive or anticoagulant should be allowed to clot before centrifugation?

Please select the single best answer

Two hours

30 minutes

Three hours

10 minutes

All of the terms below are a measure of central tendency, EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Mean

Molarity

Median

Mode

What is the minimum amount of time a specimen without additive or anticoagulant should be allowed to clot before centrifugation?

Please select the single best answer

5 minutes

30 minutes

2 hours

3 hours

Which of the following is correct regarding C-reactive protein (CRP)?

Please select the single best answer

Is a highly specific test

Corresponds to serum complement levels

Is usually elevated in pediatric bacterial infections

Does not react with pneumococcal C-polysaccharide

The alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis pattern shown on the right includes controls for A, S, and C; and A and F above and below the patient results. (NOTE: ASC and AF are labeled for the controls and do not indicate the migration order.) The patient was tested in duplicate, and the results are in lanes 3 and 4.

The patient lanes (3 and 4) displayed in these hemoglobin electrophoresis patterns are consistent with what diagnosis?

Please select the single best answer

HbSA

HbSC

HbSD

HbS/HPFH

All of the following are factors that will affect migration in gel electrophoresis, EXCEPT?

Please select the single best answer

Gel concentration (size of gel pores)

Size of particle

Voltage used

Amount of light present

How many standard deviations (SD) above and below the mean is accepted as being an appropriate control limit range on a control chart utilizing the Westgard rules:

Please select the single best answer

1 SD

2 SD

3 SD

4 SD

Which of the following best describes a hemoglobinopathy?

Please select the single best answer

Any problem involving hemoglobin destruction.

Any problem associated with hemoglobin production.

A deletion of the loci of one or more hemoglobin chains.

A substitution of an amino acid in the hemoglobin chain.

Which of the following enzymes is associated with conditions affecting skeletal muscles?

Please select the single best answer

Aldolase

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Gamma-glutamyltransferase

5'-nucleotidase

Vaccines can be divided into the following non-experimental types with the exception of:

Please select the single best answer

Live, attenuated

Inactivated

Toxoid

Recombinant vector

The serum from a patient of African-American descent is reactive with all screening and panel cells. Which antibody directed to a high incidence antigen is most likely to be present?

Please select the single best answer

Anti-Lub

Anti-Jk3

Anti-U

Anti-Ku

The measurement of sodium and chloride in the sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease?

Please select the single best answer

Steatorrhea

Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas.

Cystic fibrosis

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

On a quiet evening shift at a small hospital, you encounter a specimen with a positive antibody screen. As per your current laboratory protocol, you check for agglutination at the immediate spin phase of testing; and then again at the antihuman gloubulin (AHG) phase of 37°C. According to your laboratory guidelines, a single homozygous cell may be used to rule out an antibody. Based on the following 3-cell screen performed by tube, which of the following clinically significant antibodies are you unable to rule out?

Anti-Fya, -D

Anti-Lua, -Lea, -Fya, -C

Anti-Lea, -Fya, -C

Anti-Fya, -C, -Lub

What is the characteristic RBC that is uniquely associated with HbSS?

Please select the single best answer

Target cell (codocyte)

Sickle cell (drepanocyte)

Polychromatophilic cell

Spherocyte

Which of the following clinical laboratory departments performs the most tests?

Please select the single best answer

Urinalysis

Microbiology

Clinical Chemistry

Hematology

In a normal CSF the protein concentration as compared to that in the plasma is generally:

Please select the single best answer

Less than 50%

Less than 30%

Less than 10%

Less than 1%

A manual white blood cell count was performed by the hematology technologist. The cell counts for each of two sides was 38 and 42 respectively. All nine large squares were counted on each side. The dilution for this kit was pre-measured at 1:10. What should the technologist report as the white cell count?

Please select the single best answer

4.8 x 109/L

4.4 x 109/L

0.48 x 109/L

0.44 x 109/L

How does hydroxyurea aid in the treatment of sickle cell disease?

Please select the single best answer

Acts as an analgesic in pain management.

Prevents sickle cells from clumping together.

Induces increased production of HbF.

Reduces the number of sickle cells that form

Which of the following D variants has the best likelihood to receive D-positive RBCs without any adverse effects?

Please select the single best answer

Del

Partial D

Partial weak D

C in Trans to RHD

The presence of an increased number of hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood, as shown in this image, is an indication of which of the following conditions?

Please select the single best answer

Preleukemia

Megaloblastic anemia

Aplastic anemia

Myeloproliferative disorder

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?

Please select the single best answer

Patient population: children and young adults

Pathogenesis: following viral infection

Site of hemolysis: intravascular

Autoantibody class: IgM

What is the cause of iron overload in hereditary hemochromatosis?

Please select the single best answer

Absorption of excessive amounts of iron in the small intestine

Ingestion of excessive amounts of iron from diet or supplements

Inability of the body to excrete normal amounts of dietary iron

Failure of developing red blood cells to incorporate iron into protoporphyrin IX

All of the following conditions would be associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein, EXCEPT?

Please select the single best answer

Prostate Cancer

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

Viral Hepatitis

Testicular Tumors

Which one of the following tests BEST correlates with the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

Please select the single best answer

Color Doppler ultrasonography

An antibody screen of mother's blood

Amniotic fluid bilirubin

Antibody titer of mother's blood

Observe the bone marrow sample in the image to the right. All of the descriptors below apply EXCEPT?

Please select the single best answer

Myeloid precursors predominant

Inverted M:E ratio - around 1:3

Megakaryocyte present

Erythroid hyperplasia is present

Which troponin protein binds the troponin complex to tropomyosin?

Please select the single best answer

Troponin I (TnI)

Troponin C (TnC)

Troponin T (TnT)

Troponin P (TnP)

What causes the hemolysis associated with malarial infections?

Please select the single best answer

Multiplication of merozoites within erythrocytes

Invasion of erythrocytes by sporozoites

Host's immunologic response to damaged erythrocytes

Toxins produced by the malarial organisms

Which of the following is considered a cause of hypomagnesemia (decreased levels of magnesium in the blood)?

Please select the single best answer

Hypothyroidism

Hypoaldosteronism

Pancreatitis

Bone carcinoma

Which group of conditions increases the risk of HbS polymerization?

Please select the single best answer

Acid pH, dehydration, decreased level of 2,3-DPG

Alkaline pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG

Acid pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG

Alkaline pH, dehydration, decreased level of 2,3-DPG

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding troponin as a marker of myocardial infarction (MI)?

Please select the single best answer

It rises much sooner after a myocardial infarction than CK-MB.

It stays elevated much longer than CK-MB.

It is potentially more specific as a cardiac marker than CK-MB.

Troponin T is often elevated in renal failure patients.

The cells which release von Willebrand's Factor (vWF) are:

Please select the single best answer

Platelets and endothelial cells

Endothelial cells

Liver cells

It is not known which cells produce vWF

Ionized calcium is currently most commonly measured using which of the following method?

Please select the single best answer

Flame photometry

Color complex formation between calcium and o-cresolphthalein

Atomic absorption

Calcium ion selective electrodes

Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are MOST characteristically associated with:

Please select the single best answer

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Alcoholic cirrhosis

Chronic active hepatitis

Multiple myeloma

Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing which of the following?

Please select the single best answer

Only T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte subsets

Erythropoietin, thrombopoietin, and leukopoietin

Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells

Daughter cells from only a single cell line

Which one of the following statements concerning Vitamin D is correct?

Please select the single best answer

Vitamin D deficiency is a cause of scurvy.

Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation.

Vitamin D functions in part to aid in optic nerve transmission.

One form of Vitamin D is referred to as pyridoxal phosphate.

A deficiency in which of the folowing vitamins is associated with "scurvy"?

Please select the single best answer

Thiamine

Vitamin C

Vitamin A

Vitamin D

Vitamin C

Which of the marrow cells from the list below has highly granular basophilic cytoplasm but does not show nuclear lobules?

Please select the single best answer

Macrophage

Mast cell

Lipocyte

Osteoblast

Mast cell

How many grams are needed to make 1 L of a 3 M solution of HCl (gmw=36.46 g/mol)?

Please select the single best answer

94.9 g HCl/ L

104.9 g HCl/L

109.4 g HCl/L

118.9 g HCl/L

109.4 g HCl/L

What part of an immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule exists as kappa or lambda chains?

Please select the single best answer

Fc

Fab

Heavy chains

Light chains

Light chains

What is considered the cause of urticarial transfusion reactions?

Please select the single best answer

IgA deficient individuals receiving plasma products containing IgA

IgG or IgM antibody along with complement

Tissue damage from the formation of immune complexes

Transfusion of certain food allergens or drugs in plasma products

Transfusion of certain food allergens or drugs in plasma products

Which of the following statements is TRUE for specific gravity measured by the urine chemical reagent strip method?

Please select the single best answer

High concentrations of protein in urine do not increase the readings when using the urine chemical reagent strip.

An alkaline pH would not affect the specific gravity result using a reagent strip method.

The urine chemical reagent strip method is not affected by the presence of x-ray contrast media in the urine specimen.

The urine chemical reagent strip method is based on the fact that light is refracted in proportion to the amount of total solids dissolved in the urine.

The urine chemical reagent strip method is not affected by the presence of x-ray contrast media in the urine specimen.

All of the following are learning domains that must be considered in a medical laboratory science program, EXCEPT?

Please select the single best answer

Cognitive Domain

Affective Domain

Psychomotor Domain

Comprehension Domain

Comprehension Domain

Which type of antibodies are known to cause transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) reactions?

Please select the single best answer

Red cell antibodies

Platelet antibodies

HLA antibodies

Both red cell antibodies and platelet antibodies

HLA antibodies

Regarding hemoglobin synthesis, which of the following constitutes the alpha globin chain coding?

Please select the single best answer

Two gene loci; one each on chromosome 11.

Four gene loci; two each on chromosome 11.

Two gene loci; one each on chromosome 16.

Four gene loci; two each on chromosome 16.

Four gene loci; two each on chromosome 16.

You are collecting a blood specimen to be used for forensic (legal) alcohol testing. Which of the following must be done before you can start the specimen collection process?

Please select the single best answer

Label the tubes in the presence of the patient.

Must inform the patient that the blood about to be collected is for alcohol testing.

Seal the collection tubes in front of the patient.

Collect the specimen, the patient does not need to be informed what the blood is collected for.

Must inform the patient that the blood about to be collected is for alcohol testing.

In the steps involved in performing a bone marrow differential what objective is used and how many cells must be counted?

Please select the single best answer

100x (oil), 100 cells

40x (oil), 100 cells

10x, 200 cells

100x (oil), 200 cells

100x (oil), 200 cells

A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal thrombin time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear.

Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant?

Please select the single best answer

Factor VIII assay

Mixing studies with factor-deficient plasmas

Antinuclear antibody test

Platelet neutralization test

Platelet neutralization test

The kidneys perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Acid-base balance

Hormone production

Reabsorption of waste products

Water and electrolyte balance

Reabsorption of waste products

What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood?

Please select the single best answer

Photopheresis

Plasmapheresis

Therapeutic apheresis

Erythrocytapheresis

Photopheresis

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation?

Please select the single best answer

Creatinine

Ionized Calcium

Folate

Bicarbonate

Creatinine

Which of the following blood tests is used to determine acute pancreatitis?

Please select the single best answer

Acid phosphatase

Uric acid

Amylase

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Amylase

From the IgG molecule illustration, which region is the heavy chain?

Please select the single best answer

A

B

C

D

A

A = Heavy chain

B = Light chain

C = Antigen binding site

D = Variable region

Which of the following tests require a 72-hour stool (fecal) collection?

Please select the single best answer

Occult blood

Quantitative fecal fat

Ova and Parasite (O&P)

Stool culture

Quantitative fecal fat

The laboratory workplace includes many hours of computer use. The suggested time for a break after 30 minutes of computer use is:

Please select the single best answer

1-2 minute break

3-5 minute break

5-10 minute break

20 minute break

1-2 minute break

Aspirin ingestion prevents the synthesis of this signaling molecule in the platelet?

Please select the single best answer

Thromboxane A2

Calcium

Collagen

ADP

Thromboxane A2

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients?

Please select the single best answer

Anti-M

Anti-N

Anti-Leb

Anti-Fya

Anti-Leb

The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is:

Please select the single best answer

Osmotic gradient

Concentration of blood components

Rate of blood flow through the kidneys

Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

Error rates in the laboratory are estimated at what rate?

Please select the single best answer

Between 1:10 and 1:100 results.

Between 1:32 and 1:1260 results.

Between 1:164 to 1:8300 results.

Between 1:250 to 1:11500 results.

Between 1:164 to 1:8300 results.

All of the following are causes of hypernatremia EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Excess water loss

Low aldosterone production

Decreased water intake

Increased sodium intake or retention

Low aldosterone production

Which of the following phrases best describes a segmented neutrophil?

Please select the single best answer

Cytoplasm appears pink-purple due to small specific granules.

Cytoplasm contains large red-orange granules.

Cytoplasm is a pale blue color with a ground glass appearance.

Cytoplasm is clear with no granules.

Cytoplasm appears pink-purple due to small specific granules.

All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Measles (rubeola) vaccine

German measles (rubella) vaccine

Mumps vaccine

Polio vaccine

German measles (rubella) vaccine

A cerebrospinal fluid sample was taken from an inpatient with severe neurological symptoms. The image shows a field from a cytospin preparation from this patient's fluid. What findings are present in this field?

Please select the single best answer

Blast cells

Mesothelial cells

Choroid plexus clump

Tumor cells

Tumor cells

CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations?

Please select the single best answer

Mature T cells

Normal B cells

Both mature T cells and normal B cells

None of the above, CD5 is not a lymphoid marker

Mature T cells

How does the laboratory immunologic assessment of Waldenstrom's Primary Macroglobulinemia differ from other monoclonal gammopathies?

Please select the single best answer

Frequently an increase in IgG, possibly an M spike on serum protein electrophoresis.

Overproduction of IgM antibodies.

Only kappa or lambda monoclonal light chains or Bence-Jones protein seen on serum protein electrophoresis.

Characterized by the presence of monoclonal proteins composed of the heavy chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule.

Overproduction of IgM antibodies.

Which one of the following statements about thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is true?

Please select the single best answer

It is decreased in hyperthyroidism.

It is decreased in hypothyroidism.

A sensitive TSH assay is not a good screening test for thyroid function.

Diffuse toxic goiter is associated with elevated TSH levels.

It is decreased in hyperthyroidism.

All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Prevent recipient alloimmunization

Verify ABO and Rh

Select proper blood products

Detect antibodies against donor cells

Prevent recipient alloimmunization

A patient presents to the emergency room with severe headaches, nausea, and vomiting. CSF chemistry results are as follows:

Protein - 74 mg/dL (15-45 mg/dL)

Glucose - 53 mg/dL (40-85 mg/dL)

Based on the patient's complaints and the above laboratory results what is the most probable condition?

Please select the single best answer

Fungal Meningitis

Bacterial Meningitis

Traumatic Tap

Viral Meningitis

Viral Meningitis

Which of the following drug examples would be a good candidate for therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

Please select the single best answer

A drug that is readily cleared

A drug that has a narrow therapeutic window

A drug that has a wide therapeutic window

A drug that is used for short-term therapy

A drug that has a narrow therapeutic window

Why is Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administered within 72 hours of delivery to an Rh negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive?

Please select the single best answer

Prevent future children from producing antibodies

Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

Prevent antibody response in a previously sensitized mother

Neutralize any natural maternal antibodies present

Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

Which of the following situations suggest a traumatic tap occurred?

Please select the single best answer

More blood is in tube 1 than tubes 2, 3, or 4.

Immediate centrifugation reveals pink supernatant.

All collected specimens have an oily appearance.

3+ turbidity is present.

More blood is in tube 1 than tubes 2, 3, or 4.

In serum protein electrophoresis all of the following proteins reside in the band closest to the anodal end EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Retinol-binding protein (RBP)

Transthyretin

Albumin

Haptoglobin

Haptoglobin

Which of these units of Red Blood Cells, that has been issued and returned to the blood bank, can be returned to inventory and is acceptable to use?

Please select the single best answer

A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 1 hour previously but not transfused and kept at room temperature.

A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours.

A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 15 minutes previously, but returned unused with one of the sterile ports opened.

A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued to the ER with other units in a temperature controlled blood bank emergency cooler, returned to the blood bank 5 hours after issue, with internal temperature of the system reading 15o C.

A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours.

If a patient has three inactive alpha-globin genes, which of the four alpha (a) thalassemia classifications would they have?

Please select the single best answer

Alpha thalassemia trait

Hydrops fetalis

Hb H disease

Silent carrier

Hb H disease

Which of the following drugs is used to treat congestive heart failure?

Please select the single best answer

Disopyramide

Quinidine

Procainamide

Digoxin

Digoxin

How many doses of RhIG should be administered if the calculated amount of fetal whole blood volume in maternal circulation was 28 mL?

Please select the single best answer

1 dose

2 doses

3 doses

4 doses

2 doses

Which of the following methods would be employed to collect sweat for chloride analysis:

Please select the single best answer

Electrophoresis

Counter electrophoresis

Iontophoresis

Isoelectric focusing

Iontophoresis

Which one of the following blood group antigens is not expressed, or only weakly expressed on cord blood cells?

Please select the single best answer

K

ABO

M

Leb

Leb

All of the following factors offer a protective effect, delaying symptoms in persons with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) EXCEPT?

Please select the single best answer

Regular blood donation

Pregnancy

Regular use of multivitamins with iron

Menstruation

Regular use of multivitamins with iron

Which of the procedures listed below will increase the platelet concentration in the preparation of platelets?

Please select the single best answer

Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a low speed.

Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed.

Centrifuge the blood at a high speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed.

Decrease the duration of rotation of the initial spin.

Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed.

A smear that is prepared from equal parts of new methylene blue and whole blood is used for which of the following?

Please select the single best answer

WBC differential

Platelet estimate

Reticulocyte count

Manual RBC count

Reticulocyte count

A patient suffering from Celiac disease and Crohn's disease (both inflammatory conditions of the GI tract) is given a new oral medication that has a narrow therapeutic window. Which of the following would be true?

Please select the single best answer

Oral medication is never effective for a patient that has these diseases. The drug must be given through IV.

Toxicity in this patient is not likely since most of the drug won't be absorbed.

Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed.

Serum drug levels obtained 15 minutes after the oral dose should confirm the drug was absorbed.

Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed.

What does the M:E ratio in a bone marrow evaluation represent?

Please select the single best answer

Monocytes to erythrocytes

Myeloid cells to erythroid cells

Myelocytes to erythrocytes

Megakaryocytes to erythrocytes

Myeloid cells to erythroid cells

Patients with Cushing's disease typically exhibit:

Please select the single best answer

Decreased plasma 17-hydroxysteroid concentration

Decreased urinary 17-hydroxysteroid excretion

Serum cortisol overproduction

Decreased cortisol secretion rate

Serum cortisol overproduction

What is the fundamental purpose of the full, pre-transfusion crossmatch?

Please select the single best answer

Detect antibodies in recipient serum/plasma that react with donor red blood cells.

Discover HLA antibodies in graft-versus-host situations.

Verify that the donor and recipient are the same blood type.

Prevent hemolytic destruction of the recipient red blood cells.

Detect antibodies in recipient serum/plasma that react with donor red blood cells.

All of the following are sites of active hematopoiesis in the adult EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Skull

Ribs

Liver

Pelvis

Liver

Essential components of compatibility testing include all of the following EXCEPT:

Please select the single best answer

Antibody screen on recipient's serum

Major crossmatch or computer crossmatch

ABO and Rh typing of recipient

Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

TIBC (total iron-binding capacity) is an indirect measurement of which of the following:

Please select the single best answer

Ferritin

Hemoglobin

Ceruloplasmin

Transferrin

Transferrin

A white blood cell stained with Wright's stain has the following characteristics:

Round eccentric nucleus with clumped chromatin pattern

1:1 nucleus to cytoplasm ratio

Basophilic cytoplasm

Crescent-shaped clear area next to nucleus

What is the MOST likely identification of this cell?

Please select the single best answer

Myeloblast

Plasma cell

Reactive lymphocyte

Polychromatic normoblast

Plasma cell

Given the following information, calculate the results in mg/24 hrs for a 24-hour urine protein.

Total volume for 24 hours = 2,400 mL

Urine protein = 2.7 mg/dL

Please select the single best answer

64.8 mg/24 hrs

10.87 mg/24 hrs

57.5 mg/24 hrs

5.89 mg/24 hrs

64.8 mg/24 hrs

Which of the following characteristics of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is NOT different for ABO and Rh HDFN?

Please select the single best answer

Disease predicted in titers

Anemia at birth

Antibody is IgG

Bilirubin at birth

Antibody is IgG

A 55-year-old white male had the following lab data:

RBC 3.7 X 1012/L

Serum iron 220 µg/dL (N: 60-80 µg/dL)

TIBC 300 µg/dL (N: 260-400 µg/dL)

Hct 32%

Serum Ferritin 2,800 ng/mL (N: 10-200 ng/mL)

WBC 5.8 x 109/L

MCV 86 fL

MCH 26 pg

MCHC 32%

Prussian Blue stain of bone marrow aspirate indicates markedly elevated iron stores.

These laboratory results are MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

Please select the single best answer

Sideroblastic anemia

Anemia of chronic disease

Hemochromatosis

Megaloblastic anemia

Hemochromatosis

Which of the following tests confirms the presence of Bence-Jones proteinuria:

Please select the single best answer

Protein electrophoresis

Sulfosalicylic acid precipitation

Cryoprecipitation

Immunoelectrophoresis

Immunoelectrophoresis

What is the BEST technique for monitoring the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

Please select the single best answer

Amniocentesis

Doppler ultrasound

Antibody titration

Cordocentesis

Doppler ultrasound

Which of these factors may be deficient if both the PT and aPTT are prolonged?

Please select the single best answer

Factor II

Factor VII

Factor VIII

Factor XI

Factor II

Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?

Please select the single best answer

Fever and chills

Unexplained bleeding from surgical site

Unexplained drop in hemoglobin

Transient jaundice

Unexplained bleeding from surgical site

There are several different types of media that can be used in electrophoresis. Most methods today use a gel - cellulose acetate, agarose, or polyacrylamide gel. Which one of the following statements is true regarding these gels?

Please select the single best answer

The compounds used to make cellulose acetate gels are carcinogenic

Polyacrylamide gels are composed of polysaccharides and acrylamides

Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes

Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are the more commonly used gels

Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes