Bio 99 Exam 2

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88 Terms

1
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What is the function of DNA helicase?

separates the two DNA strands by breaking hydrogen bonds, allowing replication to occur.

2
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How does DNA helicase work?

It binds to nucleotides when the strand opens (passive) or binds one strand and forces open the helix using ATP (active).

3
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What does translocation mean in DNA helicase activity?

Translocation is the ATP-dependent movement of helicase along DNA to separate strands.

4
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What is the function of SSB (single-stranded binding protein)?

stabilizes and protects single-stranded DNA during replication.

5
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What is the function of Primase?

synthesizes a short RNA primer to provide a starting point for DNA polymerase.

6
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What is the function of DNA Polymerase III?

It synthesizes new DNA by adding nucleotides to a pre-existing chain in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

7
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What is the function of the β-clamp?

holds DNA polymerase III in place on the DNA strand to ensure high processivity during replication.

8
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What is the function of DNA Polymerase I?

It removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps with DNA.

9
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What is the function of RNAse H?

removes RNA primers from DNA strands.

10
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Does Pol I/RNAse H work on leading or lagging strands?

Lagging strands.

11
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What is the function of DNA ligase?

forms phosphodiester bonds between DNA fragments to complete the strand.

12
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Why must DNA ligase form a bond between G and C nucleotides after primer replacement?

Because a free 5’ triphosphate is not present, and DNA polymerase is no longer there to do it.

13
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Why do we need Okazaki fragments?

Because DNA synthesis only occurs 5’ to 3’, but DNA strands are antiparallel.

14
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What is the Trombone Model?

A model describing how the lagging strand forms loops so DNA polymerases on both strands can move together.

15
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What is the End Replication Problem?

The inability to fully replicate the ends of linear DNA, leading to gradual shortening of chromosomes.

16
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Why does the End Replication Problem occur?

The RNA primer at the end of the lagging strand cannot be replaced with DNA, leaving a gap.

17
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How does the cell solve the End Replication Problem?

By using telomerase to extend the ends of DNA.

18
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Does telomerase require a separate primer?

No.

19
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Is telomere synthesis DNA or RNA synthesis?

DNA synthesis.

20
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In what types of cells is telomerase active?

Germ cells and stem cells.

21
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What happens to telomeres in differentiated cells?

They shorten with each cell division because telomerase is not active.

22
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What conclusion was made from fibroblast experiments about telomeres?

Telomere length correlates with cellular lifespan.

23
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What is PCR used for?

To amplify a specific region of DNA.

24
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How do we PCR only the DNA we want?

By designing specific primers that bind only to the target sequence.

25
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What direction must DNA replication occur in PCR?

5’ to 3’ direction.

26
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Why does the correct annealing temperature matter in PCR?

Correct temperature ensures specific primer binding; too low allows non-specific binding.

27
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Define DNA helicase.

An enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix during replication.

28
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Define SSB.

Single-stranded binding proteins that prevent DNA strands from re-annealing.

29
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Define Primase.

An enzyme that creates RNA primers for DNA polymerase to start synthesis.

30
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Define DNA polymerase III.

The main enzyme that extends DNA strands during replication.

31
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Define β-clamp.

A protein that keeps DNA polymerase III attached to DNA.

32
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Define DNA polymerase I.

An enzyme that removes RNA primers and fills gaps with DNA.

33
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Define DNA ligase.

An enzyme that connects Okazaki fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds.

34
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Define Okazaki fragment.

Short DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand during replication.

35
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Define Telomerase.

An enzyme that extends the telomeres at chromosome ends.

36
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Define PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

A laboratory method to amplify specific DNA sequences using primers and DNA polymerase.

37
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What is a point mutation?

A change in a single nucleotide.

38
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What is a silent mutation?

A mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence.

39
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What is a missense mutation?

changes one amino acid to another.

40
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What is a nonsense mutation?

A mutation that introduces a premature stop codon.

41
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What is an insertion mutation?

A mutation where one or more nucleotides are added to the DNA sequence.

42
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What is a deletion mutation?

A mutation where one or more nucleotides are removed from the DNA sequence.

43
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What is a frameshift mutation?

A mutation that changes the reading frame of the codons due to insertion or deletion.

44
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What is a chromosome inversion, deletion, or translocation mutation?

Structural changes to chromosomes involving flipping, losing, or rearranging segments.

45
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What causes polymerase errors?

Incorrect nucleotide incorporation during replication, about 1 error per 10⁵ nucleotides.

46
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What is deamination of nucleotide bases?

Loss of an amino group from a nucleotide, causing mutations during replication.

47
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What is oxidation of nucleotide bases?

Damage by reactive oxygen species that alters base pairing.

48
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What is T-T dimer formation?

Structural damage where two adjacent thymine bases bond together due to UV light.

49
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What happens in chromosome breakage?

Physical breaking of DNA strands, leading to possible deletions or rearrangements.

50
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What is the purpose of the Ames test?

To test whether a chemical is mutagenic.

51
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How is the Ames test performed?

Bacteria that cannot synthesize histidine are exposed to a chemical to see if mutations allow them to grow without histidine.

52
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What does it mean if S. typhimurium cannot make their own histidine?

It likely has a mutation in a histidine synthesis gene.

53
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How do we know if a compound is mutagenic in the Ames test?

If colonies grow without histidine, it indicates mutations and mutagenicity.

54
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How are polymerase errors repaired?

Via proofreading (3' to 5' exonuclease activity) and mismatch repair pathway.

55
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What is mismatch repair?

A system that identifies and repairs wrongly incorporated bases after replication.

56
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In prokaryotes, how is the parental strand recognized during mismatch repair?

By methylation of GATC sites.

57
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In eukaryotes, how is the parental strand recognized during mismatch repair?

By the presence of nicks in the new strand.

58
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Where will DNA ligase act in mismatch repair?

It seals the nick after the mismatch is corrected.

59
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What is base excision repair (BER)?

A repair pathway that fixes small, non-helix-distorting base lesions by removing the base and replacing it.

60
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What is nucleotide excision repair (NER)?

A repair pathway that removes bulky helix-distorting lesions like T-T dimers.

61
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What experiment revealed the NER pathway?

Adding radioactive thymidine showed DNA repair outside S-phase; absent in XP cells.

62
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What defect do XP patients have?

An underactive nucleotide excision repair pathway.

63
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In vitro, how is XP phenotype tested?

By measuring DNA radioactivity after UV treatment; XP cells show less repair activity.

64
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What causes double-stranded (DS) breaks?

Irradiation, UV rays, chemicals, and collapsed replication forks.

65
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Why are DS breaks dangerous?

They inhibit replication and transcription and can cause chromosomal rearrangements.

66
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What is homologous recombination (HR)?

A DS break repair mechanism that uses a homologous DNA template to fix the break.

67
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What is non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)?

A DS break repair mechanism that directly joins the broken DNA ends without a template.

68
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Why knock out a gene?

To study gene function or create models of disease.

69
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How do you introduce foreign DNA into cells for knockout?

By transformation using heat shock and selection media.

70
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What is the URA3 cassette used for?

To knock out a gene by replacing it with a selectable marker (URA3).

71
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How would you select for cells that have acquired the knockout cassette?

Use ura3Δ starting cells and media without uracil; only successfully modified cells survive.

72
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Does this media confirm gene knockout?

No, further verification is needed.

73
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When wild type mouse cells are transformed with the NeoR cassette, they are plated in media (LACKING/CONTAINING) neomycin. Growth in this media (DOES/DOES NOT) confirm mTR knockout

Containing, Does not

74
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After PCR with mTR and NeoR primers, which gel lanes do you expect if mTR is knocked out?

Lanes 3 and 4

75
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For this PCR reaction, would you use DNA or RNA primers and why?

DNA, because it is more stable.

76
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What would happen if the annealing temperature during PCR was raised to 80°C?

No PCR products

77
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Which is NOT a phenotype of mTR -/- knockout cells?

Slower replication compared to wild type

78
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In wild type cells, which chromosome strand is most likely extended by telomerase?

Strand B

79
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After adenine is deaminated to hypoxanthine and not repaired, what base pairs are found in chromatids 1A and 1B

A/T on chromosome 1A and G/C on chromosome 1B

80
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In an in vitro DNA repair assay for hypoxanthine, which radiolabeled dNTP is necessary?

Radioactive dCTP

81
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In the Ames test with three compounds, how many are mutagenic based on results?

2

82
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In the Ames test, do we assume a mutagen affects only the histidine synthesis gene?

true

83
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What is a good negative control for the Ames test?

compound that does not mutate DNA.

84
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What is a silent mutation?

A nucleotide change that does not change the amino acid.

85
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Why is a poly G sequence added to cDNA during library construction?

Because there is no common sequence on the 3’ end of the cDNA.

86
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Why are sticky ends preferred in cloning with EcoRI?

Because they help make the ligation process more efficient.

87
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Why is DNA ligase needed to join EcoRI-digested cDNA and plasmid?

Because the "G" on the plasmid side only contains an OH group.

88
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For a shuttle vector functional in yeast, what kind of promoter must it contain?

Bacterial or Yeast promoter (either acceptable).