Hematology Test 2

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Last updated 10:34 PM on 6/24/26
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143 Terms

1
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different tests require different tubes / systems

why is it important to know the test(s) being run?

2
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3

always collect enough sample to run the test __ times whenever possible

3
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largest

always use the _________ (largest or smallest?) needle for your patient size

4
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choose the syringe closest to the required sample volume

how do you choose syringe size?

5
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veterinarian & lab (if necessary)

who should you check with to make sure you collect the sample correctly & use the correct supplies?

6
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true

true or false: with the vacuum system, you can collect multiple tubes at once

7
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a needle, needle holder, and collection tubes

what is the vacuum system composed of?

8
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sizes; chemical

with the vacuum system, many tubes are available in various ______ & ___________ makeup

9
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manual method

collection method standardly performed in practice

10
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needle, syringe, and collection tube of choice

what is used for the manual method of blood collection?

11
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true

true or false: always remove needle & cap of tube to transfer sample

12
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due to longer draw time / distance & clotting issues

some veterinarians recommend using a butterfly catheter to draw blood, especially in cats; why is this less desirable?

13
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crenation

the process where cells, particularly red blood cells, shrink & develop abnormal, notched, or scalloped edges

14
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jugular vein; cephalic vein

which vein is best for blood collection in most mammals? which is the next best?

15
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femoral / medial saphenous vein

which vein is best for blood collection in cats?

16
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peripheral or capillary

__________ or __________ blood samples from birds & lab animals are best

17
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false

true or false: it is ideal to draw blood after treatments / procedures

18
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anticoagulants

any chemical that prevents or delays coagulation

19
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false

true or false: always vigorously mix samples

20
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based on the test(s) to be run

how do you choose which type of anticoagulant is needed?

21
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prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin during clotting process

how does heparin work as an anticoagulant?

22
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heparin

anticoagulant choice for most plasma samples

23
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differentials - hinders proper staining of WBCs

what should heparin never be used for? why?

24
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sodium, potassium, lithium, or ammonium salt

heparin is available as…

25
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true

true or false: for small sample volumes, you can coat the inside walls of a syringe with liquid heparin before sample is drawn

26
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heparin

knowt flashcard image
27
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EDTA

best anticoagulant for morphology & cell analysis

28
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plasma samples for chemistry

EDTA is not ideal for…

29
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prevents clotting by binding with calcium

how does EDTA work as an anticoagulant?

30
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crenation

excess EDTA causes cellular _________

31
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EDTA

knowt flashcard image
32
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ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

what does EDTA stand for?

33
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sodium, potassium, ammonium, or lithium salts

oxalates & citrates are available as…

34
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by binding with calcium & other clotting factors

how do oxalates & citrates work as anticoagulants?

35
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oxalates

_______ may bind to metallic ions necessary for enzyme activity

36
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false

true or false: you always want to use potassium / sodium based oxalates or citrates for potassium / sodium chemistry

37
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sodium citrate

knowt flashcard image
38
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sodium fluoride

the best anticoagulant for glucose preservation

39
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6 - 10mg/ml

as an anticoagulant, sodium fluoride is used at __-__ mg/ml of blood

40
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glucose

sodium fluoride can be aded to other anticoagulants to preserve _________

41
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can interfere with many serum chemistries

what is a limitation to sodium fluoride?

42
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sodium fluoride

knowt flashcard image
43
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none - contains no anticoagulant

what type of anticoagulant is in plain top / serum separator tubes (SSTs)?

44
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serum

plain top tubes are best for collecting…?

45
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to aid with separation of the sample

what is the purpose of the gel in SSTs

46
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true

true or false: the gel in SSTs may interfere with certain sensitive chemistries

47
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1

refrigerate whole blood within __ hour(s) of collection

48
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false - allow sample to reach room temperature first

true or false: whole blood samples should be analyzed immediately after being removed from the fridge

49
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true

true or false: refrigerated samples of whole blood should be mixed gently

50
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hemolysis

why should you not freeze whole blood samples?

51
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1

plasma samples should be refrigerated or centrifuged within __ hour(s)

52
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true

true or false: you can freeze collected plasma, just not the whole tube of blood

53
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false! - do NOT invert the tube afterwards

true or false: after centrifuging plasma samples, you want to mix gently

54
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bring sample back to room temp & mix gently

what should you do with a plasma sample after refrigeration, but before centrifugation?

55
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30

for serum samples, allow to clot for __ minutes, then centrifuge

56
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true

true or false: you can freeze serum after centrifugation

57
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right jugular vein

  • largest

  • easiest to reach

  • not contaminated with lymphatic fluid

which vein is preferred for sample collection from exotics? why?

58
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they can provide more accurate numbers of blood cells; more than just an “estimate”

why are automated cell counters useful?

59
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  1. impedance analyzer

  2. laser flow cytometry

  3. quantitative buffy coat analyzer

what are the 3 main types of automated cell counters?

60
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false - some machines may combine 1 or more of the types

true or false: each automated cell counter machine is limited to one type

61
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complete blood count

what does CBC stand for?

62
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  • automated analyzer

  • manual PCV / TS (+/- fibrinogen)

    • always check for microfilaria!

  • manual differential

    • diff of 100 WBCs, RBC morphology, PLT count, blood parasites

what do most veterinarians expect in a CBC?

63
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hemogram

CBC, aka…

64
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  • quantitative data

    • usually a definitive #

    • total cell counts, differential counts, red cell indices

  • qualitative data

    • more subjective

    • cellular morphology

what are the 2 portions of a hemogram?

65
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  1. acute

  2. chronic

  3. overwhelming

what are the 3 ways to classify inflammation?

66
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patient history

what can be helpful to differentiate the classifications of inflammation?

67
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  • neutrophilia with a left shift

  • lymphopenia

  • variable monocytosis

what is found with acute inflammation?

68
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use of cells by blood & tissues

neutrophilia reflects…

69
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depletion of the marrow pool & younger cells are released

left shift suggests…

70
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stress related to an acute inflammatory process

lymphopenia reflects…

71
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  • marked leukocytosis

    • marked neutrophilia with left shift

    • neutrophil toxicity

    • monocytosis

  • normal to slighly elevated leukocyte count

    • normal lymphocytes & monocytes

what is found with acute chronic inflammation?

72
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anemia & hyperglobulinemia

marked leukocytosis is often accompanied by…

73
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an increase in production due to demand; no longer utilizing immature cells, so there is no longer a left shift

normal WBCs reflect…

74
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a need to phagocytosis

monocytosis reflects…

75
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  • reduced neutrophils

  • left shift

  • lymphopenia

  • variable monocytosis

what is found with overwhelming inflammation?

76
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WBCs

the immune system becomes overwhelmed / exhausted as _____ are used up

77
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  • mild neutrophilia

  • mild monocytosis

  • mild lymphocytosis

as the body prepares for fight / flight, it may cause…

78
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eosinophils & lymphocytes

stress may reduce numbers of…

79
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mild lymphocytosis

what is often found in cats that are stressed?

80
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demand for phagocytosis

what do monocytes indicate?

81
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  • acute or chronic inflammation

  • tissue necrosis

monocytosis is present in what processes?

82
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persistent eosinophilia and / or basophilia

what WBC abnormalities are seen with hypersensitivity?

83
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parasitic disease, allergies, feline asthma, allergic gastroenteritis

list 4 causes of hypersensitivity

84
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histamine

what chemical mediator is associated with hypersensitivity?

85
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false - most hemoparasites (ex. Mycoplasma) do not cause eosinophilia

true or false: all parasitic infections are associated with eosinophilia

86
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heartworm (Dirofilaria immtis)

a common parasitic cause of eosinophilia in dogs

87
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ectoparasites or those with a migrating tissue phase

what specific type of parasitic infection is associated with eosinophilia?

88
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toxic neutrophils (and lymphocytes)

toxemia is characterized by…

89
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bacterial infections

toxemia is most commonly associated with…

90
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extensive tissue necrosis

what tissue condition may correlate with toxemia?

91
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true

true or false: you can have neutrophils toxicity without having toxemia

92
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  1. maintain vascular integrity

  2. stop bleeding by forming plugs.

  3. facilitate secondary hemostasis (coagulation) & fibrin formation

  4. promote vascular healing

what are the 4 distinct functions of platelets?

93
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bone marrow

where are platelets produced?

94
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thrombopoietin

what is the cytokine involved with PLT development?

95
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2/3 to 3/4

approximately ___ to ___ of all platelets are in circulation

96
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  • 3 - 7 days

  • phagocytized

  1. what is the average life span of platelets?

  2. how are they removed from the body?

97
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evaluate by counting the # of PLTs in a minimum of 10 field (100x) & average them together

describe how to evaluate PLTs on a blood film

98
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oil immersion field

what does “oif” stand for?

99
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10 - 12 / oif

how many PLTs / oif is considered normal?

100
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PLT #s seemed decreased; if so, then more quantitative measures should be done

examination of PLTs on a blood film is sufficient unless…?