Semester 2 final physiology preparation

Choose the answer that best matches the description: loss of large quantity of blood

hemorrhage

Place the following in the order in which they develop:

1. lymphoid stem cells

2. myeloid stem cells

3. megakaryocytes

4. megakaryoblasts

5. platelet

6. megakaryocyte colony forming cells

2, 6, 4, 3, 5 but never 1

Which of the following is correct?

-Blood cells formed in adult liver, spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes.

-pluripotent cells become myeloid stem cells or lymphoid stem cells

-All of newborn's born marrow is yellow marrow

-Red marrow can be converted to yellow marrow if body needs to make more blood cells

-Most formed elements survive for years

Pluripotent cells become myeloid stem cells

A medical technology student is learning to count blood cells the low-tech way: using a microscope and a special slide called a hemocytometer. She has just found a round, darkly-stained white blood cell that contains large granules. She cannot see the cell's nucleus. The student is probably looking at a

-monocyte

-basophil

-eosinophil

-neutrophil

-lymphocyte

basophil

Deandray has circulating anti-A, anti-B and anti-D antibodies. Which of the following blood types may safely receive blood from him?

-None of these types may safely receive blood from him.

-A positive

-All of these types may safely receive blood from him.

-O negative

-B negative

All of these types may safely receive blood from him.

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: dissolves blood clot

A) clot retraction

B) common pathway

C) extrinsic pathway

D) fibrinolysis

E) intrinsic pathway

fibrinolysis

Which of the following hematocrit values indicates that a patient has polycythemia?

-37%

-25%

-42%

-62%

-47%

62%

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: RBCs display antigens A and B.

A) type A

B) type AB

C) type B

D) type O

type AB

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: plasma minus clotting proteins

A) coagulation

B) hemorrhage

C) platelet plug formation

D) serum

E) vascular spasm

serum

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: RBCs display neither antigen A or B

A) type A

B) type AB

C) type B

D) type O

type O

Jason has circulating anti-B, but not anti-A, antibodies. Which blood type does he have?

-A

-O

-AB

-B

-There is not enough information to determine the answer.

A

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: portion of hemoglobin molecule that binds O2

A) Fe2+

B) ferritin

C) globin

D) heme

E) transferrin

Fe2+

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

-All lymphocytes have large nuclei.

-Some monocytes become fixed macrophages, remaining in one tissue.

-All macrophages arise from monocytes.

-All leukocytes are lymphocytes.

-Some monocytes become wandering macrophages, patrolling the body.

All leukocytes are lymphocytes

Which of the following does NOT correctly describe a mechanism that prevents excessive blood clotting?

-Presence of vitamin K blocks platelet adhesion and release.

-Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin dissolves fibrin.

-Dilution and removal of coagulation factors by blood flow.

-Activated protein C enhances activities of plasminogen activators.

-Antithrombin blocks the actions of vactors XII, X and II.

Presence of vitamin K blocks platelet adhesion and release

Erythropoiesis

-increases in response to elevated levels of O2.

-occurs more slowly at higher altitudes.

-increases in response to depressed levels of EPO.

-normally keeps pace with RBC destruction.

-requires amino acids, vitamin B6, and iron ions.

normally keeps pace with RBC destruction

Which of the following is NOT normally found inside platelets?

-fibrinogen

-thromboxane A2

-serotonin

-ADP

-platelet-derived growth factor

fibrinogen

The ABO blood group is based on the presence of

-type A and type B glycoproteins circulating in the plasma.

-type A and type B glycolipids on the surfaces of leukocytes.

-type A and type B glycolipids circulating in the plasma.

-type A and type B glycolipids on the surfaces of erythrocytes.

-type A and type B glycoproteins on the surfaces of nucleated cells.

type A and type B glycolipids on the surfaces of erythhrocytes

Which of the following is NOT associated with hemophilia?

-more prevalent in males

-inherited deficiency of blood clotting

-spontaneous hemorrhages

-simultaneous, unregulated blood clotting and hemorrhage throughout the body

-treatment with plasma, DDAVP, or clotting factors

simultaneous, unregulated blood clotting and hemorrhage throughout the body

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: RBCs display only antigen B

A) type A

B) type AB

C) type B

D) type O

type B

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: numbers increase greatly during bacterial infections, burns and inflammations

A) basophils

B) eosinophils

C) lymphocytes

D) monocytes

E) neutrophils

neutrophils

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: produces cells that will gragment to become platelets

A) CFU-E

B) CFU-Meg

C) CFU-GM

D) lymphoid stem cells

E) pluripotent stem cell

CFU-Meg

Each of the following is a constituent of plasma EXCEPT

-formed elements

-gases

-proteins

-nutrients

-water

formed elements

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term:produces monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

A) CFU-E

B) CFU-Meg

C) CFU-GM

D) lymphoid stem cells

E) pluripotent stem cell

CFU-GM

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: transporter that carries Fe3+ to red bone marrow

A) Fe2+

B) ferritin

C) globin

D) heme

E) transferrin

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: numbers increase in viral and fungal infections; become large phagocytic cells once they leave the blood vessels

A) basophils

B) eosinophils

C) lymphocytes

D) monocytes

E) neutrophils

monocytes

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: transport iron

A) albumins

B) enzymes and hormones

C) fibrinogen

D) globulin

E) immunoglobulins

fibrinogen

Which of the following is NOT correct?

-Mature red blood cells are called erythrocytes.

-The average life span of an erythrocyte is 120 days.

-Most adults have around 5 million RBCs/µL of blood.

-RBCs have a spheroidal shape.

-The body produces about 2 million erythrocytes per second.

RBCs have a spheroidal shape

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: normal percentage of lymphocytes

A) 5000-10,000 /µL

B) 150,000-400,000 /µL

C) 4.8 million-5.4 million /µL

D) 60-70% of all WBCs

E) 20-25% of all WBCs

20-25% of all WBCs

Hemoglobin

-has a central protein called heme.

-consists of one alpha and one beta chain of protein.

-constitutes 90% of an erythrocyte's mass.

-has an Fe2+ at the center of it's heme group.

-binds CO2 to the Fe2+ at the center of it's heme group.

has an Fe2+ at the center of it's heme group

Which of the following is NOT correct?

-Neutrophils are usually the first and most numerous responders to an infection.

-Macrophages react more slowly to an infection than neutrophils do.

-Chemotaxis refers to the intracellular destruction of pathogens by phagocytic cells.

-WBCs use lysozyme, defensins, and certain anions to destroy pathogens.

-Emigration, or diapedesis, is the process by which phagocytic cells leave blood vessels.

Chemotaxis refers to the intracellular destruction of pathogens by phagocytic cells

Which of type of anemia is inherited?

-sickle cell anemia

-aplastic anemia

-pernicious anemia

-hemorrhagic anemia

-megaloblastic anemia

sickle cell anemia

Three year old Juanita has a rare form of leukemia. The doctors have recommended, and her family has agreed, that her best chance of survival is to destroy her bone marrow and then replace it with stem cells from a donor. Which of the following sources of stem cells would probably be best?

-bone marrow from the iliac crest of her older half-brother

-bone marrow from the iliac crest of her mother

-stored cord-blood from her baby sister

-bone marrow from the iliac crest of her mother's friend

-stored cord-blood of her own

stored cord-blood from her baby sister

Hemoglobin

-contributes the no color to erythrocytes.

-abnormalities seldom affect RBC shape or durability.

-has no effect on blood pressure and blood distribution.

-A1c levels can be used to monitor the blood Na+ levels.

-transports most of the O2 and about 7% of the CO2 between the tissues and the lungs.

transports most of the O2 and about 7% of the CO2 between the tissues and the lungs

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: cell type listed that gives rise to all other blood cells

A) CFU-E

B) CFU-Meg

C) CFU-GM

D) lymphoid stem cells

E) pluripotent stem cell

pluripotent stem cell

Which of the following does not arise from a myeloid stem cell?

-monocyte

-red blood cell

-lymphocyte

-platelet

-eosinophil

lymphocyte

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: normal number of WBCs

A) 5000-10,000 /µL

B) 150,000-400,000 /µL

C) 4.8 million-5.4 million /µL

D) 60-70% of all WBCs

E) 20-25% of all WBCs

5000-10,000 /µL

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: clotting protein

A) albumins

B) enzymes and hormones

C) fibrinogen

D) globulin

E) immunoglobulins

fibrinogen

Which of the following is NOT function of blood?

-regulates pH

-distribute heat

-transports nutrients, wastes and gases

-promote blood loss

-defends against infection

promote blood loss

Blood groups are based on

-the presence of inherited antigens on the surfaces of erythrocytes.

-the presence of inherited circulating antibodies.

-the presence of induced circulating antibodies.

-the presence of inherited antigens on the surfaces of leukocytes and other nucleated cells.

-All of these are correct.

the presence of inherited antigens on the surfaces of erythrocytes

Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with bone marrow transplantation?

-required anti-rejection medications increase risk of infection

-surviving recipient lymphcytes may attacke the donated marrow

-lymphocytes from the donated marrow may attack the recepient's tissues

-reduced risk of infection in the two weeks immediately following the procedure

-required anti-rejection medications may damage the kidneys or liver

reduced risk of infection in the two weeks immediately following the procedure

Hemostasis

-can prevent hemorrhage if the damaged blood vessels are small.

-involves vascular spasm, platelet plug formation and coagulation.

-All of the above are correct.

-is a sequence of events that prevents the loss of blood from blood vessels.

-must be rapid, localized and carefully controlled.

All of the above are correct

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: portion of hemoglobin molecule that ultimately gives urine and feces their colors

A) Fe2+

B) ferritin

C) globin

D) heme

E) transferrin

Fe2+

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: antibodies

A) albumins

B) enzymes and hormones

C) fibrinogen

D) globulin

E) immunoglobulins

immunoglobulins

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: normal number of RBCs

A) 5000-10,000 /µL

B) 150,000-400,000 /µL

C) 4.8 million-5.4 million /µL

D) 60-70% of all WBCs

E) 20-25% of all WBCs

4.8 million-5.4 million /µL

Choose the answer that best matches the description or term: include B cells, T cells, and NK cells

A) basophils

B) eosinophils

C) lymphocytes

D) monocytes

E) neutrophils

lymphocytes

A patient's ECG contains a prolonged P-Q interval, but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is true of this patient's condition?

-The patient is having an acute myocardial infarction.

-The patient probably has ventricular hypertrophy.

-The patient may have coronary artery disease.

-The patient probably has hyperkalemia.

-The patient probably has atrial atrophy.

The patient may have coronary artery disease

Which of the following does an electrocardiogram detect?

-ischemic coronary blood vessels

-damage to certain regions of the heart

-disturbances of the conduction pathway of the heart.

-All of these may be detected by an ECG.

-cardiomegaly (enlargement of the heart)

All of these may be detected by an ECG

Which of the following is NOT associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

-enlarged left ventricle

-stenosed pulmonary SL valve

-an aorta over-riding the ventricular septum

-enlarged right ventricle

-interventricular septal defect

enlarged left ventricle

The heart wall

-is composed of five layers of voluntary muscle arranged in diagonal, swirling bands.

-consists largely of a middle layer of muscular tissue called the myocardium which performs the pumping action of the heart.

-includes the endocardium, or outermost layer, which is contiguous with the serous pericardium.

-All of these are correct.

-has an inner layer called the epicardium, which is fused with the fibrous layer of the pericardium.

consists largely of a middle layer of muscular tissue called the myocardium which performs the pumping action of the heart

A patient's maximum cardiac output is 20 L/min. Her resting cardiac output is 5 L/min. What is the patient's cardiac reserve?

-50 L/min

-25 L/min

-4 L/min

-15 L/min

-100 L/min

15 L/min

Which of the following are normally observed in the left ventricle after birth?

-raised bundles of cardiac muscle fibers called trabeculae carneae

-an incomplete ventricular septum

-a semilunar valve allowing blood to exit to the pulmonary trunk

-a tricuspid valve allowing blood to enter from the left atrium

-papillary muscles and chordae tendinae attached to the semilunar valve

raised bundles of cardiac muscle fibers called trabeculae carneae

Which of the following correctly describes how stroke volume regulated?

B) by adjusting the contractility, or strength of contraction of the heart at a given preload

-A and B are correct.

-A, B and C are correct.

A) by adjusting the preload, the pressure that must be overcome to open an SL valve

C) by adjusting the afterload, or degree of stretch on the heart before it contracts

By adjusting the contractility, or strength of contraction of the heart at a given preload

Which event occurs during ventricular systole?

-isovolumetric contraction

-ventricular pressure drops

-opening of the AV valves

-filling of the atria

-depolarization of the SA node

isovolumetric contraction

All of the following are true of the cardiac conduction system EXCEPT

-Autonomic nervous system impulses establish the fundamental rhythm of the heart.

-Ach release by the parasympathetic division of the ANS decreases SA node depolarization.

-Ectopic pacemakers may be stimulated by caffeine or nicotine.

-The AV node can take over the pacemaking task if the SA node is damaged.

-The pacemaking ability of the AV bundle alone is not sufficient to maintain homeostasis.

Autonomic nervous system impulses establish the fundamental rhythm of the heart

The pericardium

-anchors the heart to the diaphragm.

-includes a serous outer layer.

-contains fluid between the fibrous and parietal serous layers.

-secretes a mucoid film that reduces friction between the heart and the chest wall.

-includes a fibrous inner layer that is also called the epicardium.

anchors the heart to the diaphragm

Place the following in order of the propagation of a cardiac action potential

1. Purkinje fibers

2. SA node

3. right and left bundle branches

4. AV bundle

5. AV node

2, 5, 4, 3, 1

A myocardial infarction

A) results from an interrupted blood supply to part of the heart.

B) causes death of part of the heart.

-A and B are correct.

C) is usually treated with pro-coagulation therapy.

-A, B, and C are correct.

A and B are correct

Why doesn't a significant amount of blood flow back into the vena cavae and coronary sinus during atrial contraction?

-the bicuspid valve blocks the venous openings

-the venous valves block the venous openings

-the semilunar valves block the venous openings

-the contraction of the atria compresses and closes the venous openings

-the tricuspid valve blocks the venous openings

the contraction of the atria compresses and closes the venous openings

Blood passing through the bicuspid valve will enter the

-right ventricle

-left ventricle

-right atrium

-left atrium

-aorta

left ventricle

Each of the cardiac valves

B) attaches to the ventricular walls via chordae tendinae.

A) opens and closes in response to changes in pressure.

C) ensures one-way blood flow through the heart.

-All of these are correct.

-A and C are correct.

A and C are correct

Which of the following is true of the left ventricle?

-The left ventricle has a thinner wall than the right ventricle.

-The left ventricle has a lumen with a circular perimeter.

-The left ventricle pumps blood against less resistance than the right ventricle.

-The left and right ventricles contract asynchronously.

-The left ventricle pumps blood a shorter distance than the right ventricle.

The left ventricle has a lumen with a circular perimeter

Which of the following correlations between cardiac contractions and ECG waves is correct?

Atrial diastole precedes the appearance of the QRS complex.

Ventricular diastole precedes the appearance of the T wave.

All chambers are contracted during the period between the T wave and the next P wave.

Atrial systole persists through the S-T segment.

Ventricular systole begins after the QRS complex appears.

Ventricular systole begins after the QRS complex appears.

The heart

lies within the mediastinum

lies just inferior to the diaphragm.

lies lateral to the lungs.

lies anterior to the sternum.

all of these are correct

lies within the mediastinum

Which of the following is normally observed on the external surface of the heart?

a shallow coronary sulcus that encircles most of the heart marking the boundary between the inferior atria and superior ventricles

a right ventricle which is much larger the left ventricle

a series of sulci that contain coronary blood vessels and a variable amount of fat

an auricle on the anterior surface of each ventricle

a shallow groove called the anterior interventricular sulcus on the anterior surface marking the boundary between the right and left ventricles

a series of sulci that contain coronary blood vessels and a variable amount of fat

A patient has pulmonary edema but not peripheral edema. Which of the following is probably true of the patient's heart?

The patient's left atrium is failing.

The patient's right ventricle is failing.

The patient's heart is working normally.

The patient's right atrium is failing.

The patient's left ventricle is failing.

The patient's left ventricle is failing

The QRS complex of the ECG is associated with

B) ventricular depolarization

A) atrial depolarization

C) atrial repolarization

B and C are correct.

D) ventricular repolarization

B) ventricular depolarization

Cardiac output

A, B and C are correct.

C) is the product of the stroke volume and the heart rate.

A and B are correct.

B) is the volume of blood ejected from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk each minute.

A) is the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta each minute.

A, B and C are correct.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood flows as it moves lower body to the to the left atrium?

1. Pulmonary veins

2. Superior vena cava

3. Right ventricle

4. Pulmonary valve

5. Pulmonary trunk and arteries

6. Inferior vena cava

7. Tricuspid valve

8. Right atrium

9. Lungs

6, 8, 7, 3, 4, 5, 9, 1, but never 2

A patient has an EDV of 90 mL and an ESV of 40 mL with a heart rate of 50. What is this patient's cardiac output?

2500 mL/min or 2.5 L/min

180 mL/min or 0.18 L/min

2000 mL/min or 2.0 L/min

6500 mL/min or 6.5 L/min

4500 mL/min or 4.5 L/min

2500 mL/min or 2.5 L/min

A medical student examines a valve that has been removed from a heart. He observes that the valve has 3 crescent moon shaped cusps, but no chordae tendinae. What conclusion could he draw based on those observations?

The valve is the tricuspid valve.

The valve is the aortic semilunar valve.

The valve is the pulmonary semilunar valve.

The valve is the bicuspid valve.

The valve could be either the aortic or the pulmonary semilunar valve.

The valve could be either the aortic or the pulmonary semilunar valve

Which of the following are normally observed in the right atrium after birth?

a foramen on the medial surface leading into the left atrium

a semilunar valve leading into the right ventricle

openings from the pulmonary veins

openings from the coronary sinus, superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

pectinate muscles on the posterior wall

openings from the coronary sinus, superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

Select the events that occur during the plateau phase of a cardiac contractile action potential and place them in the order in which they occur during that phase.

1. rapid depolarization of the membrane

2. inactivation of the fast Na+ channels

3. action potential in develops in neighboring cells

4. release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

5. opening of voltage-gated slow Ca2+ channels

6. opening of voltage-gated fast Na+ channels

7. entry of Ca2+ from the interstitial fluid

8. decreased permeability to K+ due to closing of some K+ channels

9. voltage-gated K+ channels open

10. closure of Ca2+ channels

11. restoration of the resting membrane potential

5, 4, 7 and 8

Which of the following describe the relaxation period of the cardiac cycle?

It is a time when the AV valves are closed.

It is a time that becomes shorter as the heart rate increases.

It is the time when the ventricles receive most of the blood from the aorta.

It is a time when the atria are contracted.

It is a time when the SL valves are open.

It is a time that becomes shorter as the heart rate increases.

Which of the following does not supply the heart with nutrient and oxygen rich blood?

great cardiac vein

posterior interventricular branch

right marginal branch

anterior interventricular branch

circumflex artery

great cardiac vein

All of the following are true of the development of the heart EXCEPT:

Early in development, the heart consists of a pair of tubes.

The heart is derived from ectoderm and endoderm.

The hole in the interatrial septum of the fetal heart is called the foramen ovale.

The septa of the heart develop around the seventh week of development.

The heart begins to beat at the end of the third week of development.

The heart is derived from ectoderm and endoderm.

The amount of blood contained in a ventricle at the end of atrial systole is the

end-systolic volume

cardiac output

ejection fraction

end-diastolic volume

stroke volume

end-diastolic volume

In cardiac muscle,

O2 is actively transported across the sarcolemma.

lactic acid production decreases during exercise.

most of the ATP used while at rest comes from oxidation of fatty acids.

no ATP is produced from creatine phosphate.

most of the ATP production is anaerobic.

most of the ATP used while at rest comes from oxidation of fatty acids

The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that

the greater the preload on cardiac muscle fibers, the greater the force of contraction will be.

the greater the preload on cardiac muscle fibers, the weaker the force of contraction will be.

a healthy heart will pump out all the blood that entered during the previous diastole.

the right and left ventricles must pump equal amounts of blood with each heart beat.

that increased filling time will decrease the force of contraction by the ventricles.

the greater the preload on cardiac muscle fibers, the greater the force of contraction will be

Which of the following would be expected to slow heart rate and decrease cardiac output?

epinephrine

T3/T4

norepinephrine

hyponatremia

ACh

ACh

Cardiac muscle tissue is characterized by all of these EXCEPT:

long, multinucleated, cylindrical cells

intercalated discs

striations

numerous large mitochondria

bifurcated (branched) cells

long, multinucleated, cylindrical cells

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: destination of blood in pulmonary trunk

A) aorta

B) left atrium

C) lungs

D) right atrium

E) right ventricle

C) lungs

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: ventricular volume after atria have emptied

A) diastole

B) end-diastolic volume

C) end-systolic volume

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) systole

B) end-diastolic volume

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: found in atria, help push blood into ventricles

A) auricles

B) carneae trabeculae

C) fossa ovalis

D) pectinate muscles

E) septum

D) pectinate muscles

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: middle of the heart wall, muscle layer

A) endocardium

B) epicardium

C) fibrous pericardium

D) mediastinum

E) myocardium

E) myocardium

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: secondary pacemaker

A) AV bundle (Bundle of His)

B) AV node

C) left and right bundle branches

D) Purkinje fibers

E) SA node

B) AV node

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: represents time when ventricles are repolarizing

A) P wave

B) P-Q interval

C) QRS Complex

D) S-T segment

E) T wave

E) T wave

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: destination of blood in lungs

A) aorta

B) left atrium

C) lungs

D) right atrium

E) right ventricle

B) left atrium

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: held closed during ventricular diastole by back flow of blood from pulmonary circuit

A) aortic semilunar valve

B) bicuspid valve

C) chordae tendinae

D) pulmonary SL valve

E) tricuspid valve

chordae tendinae

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: stroke volume X heart rate

A) cardiac output

B) factors regulating stroke volume

C) factors regulating heart rate

D) negative inotropic agents

E) positive inotropic agents

A) cardiac output

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: increase capacity of blood atria can hold

A) auricles

B) carneae trabeculae

C) fossa ovalis

D) pectinate muscles

E) septum

A) auricles

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: only site where action potentials conduct from atrium to ventricles

A) AV bundle (Bundle of His)

B) AV node

C) left and right bundle branches

D) Purkinje fibers

E) SA node

A) AV bundle (Bundle of His)

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: help papillary muscles hold AV valves shut while ventricles contract

A) aortic semilunar valve

B) bicuspid valve

C) chordae tendinae

D) pulmonary SL valve

E) tricuspid valve

C) chordae tendinae

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: remnant of fetal opening between right and left atria

A) auricles

B) carneae trabeculae

C) fossa ovalis

D) pectinate muscles

E) septum

C) fossa ovalis

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: time when all 4 valves are closed and ventricular blood volume does not change

A) diastole

B) end-diastolic volume

C) end-systolic volume

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) systole

D) isovolumetric relaxation

Choose the answer right that best matches the description or term: also known as the visceral layer of the serous pericardium

A) endocardium

B) epicardium

C) fibrous pericardium

D) mediastinum

E) myocardium

B) epicardium

Which of the following are classified as chronic obstructive pulmonary disorders?

-A and B are correct.

-A, B and C are correct.

C) pneumonia

A) chronic bronchitis

B) emphysema

A and B are correct.

External respiration

A and B are correct.

A) is also called systemic gas exchange.

B) moves CO2 into the blood and O2 out of the blood.

C) is the exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood.

A, B and C are correct.

C) is the exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood.

It has been one of those mornings for Latisha. First the hot water went off suddenly in the middle of her shower. When she tried to get out of the ice-cold water quickly, she stubbed her toe on the edge of the shower stall, fell and hit her "funny bone" on the toilet. When she checked her blood pressure, it was 150/100 instead of her usual 90/60. What common response did her respiratory system probably have to each of these situations?

A or B is correct.

B) brief apnea

B or C is correct.

A) decreased respiration rate

C) increased inspiration rate.

A or B is correct.

The primary bronchi

All of these are correct.

are lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

are more muscular than cartilaginous.

carry air toward each lung.

are branches arising from the trachea near the level of vertebra C5.

carry air toward each lung.

Which of the following does NOT directly factor in the rate of gas exchange?

volume of a gas available

size (molecular weight) of a gas

solubility of a gas

diffusion distance

difference in the partial pressures of a gas

volume of a gas available