164 EKG

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wk 1-7

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47 Terms

1
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sinus bradycardia

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<p></p>

atrial flutter

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Afib

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Vfib

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Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)

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A: LA (modified)

B: RA (modified)

C: LL (modified)

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A: Extreme axis deviation

B: Left axis deviation

C: Right axis deviation

D: Normal electrical axis

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A. Positive

B.  Equiphasic

C. Negative

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1. True or False: Conduction blocks can occur anywhere from the SA node to the Purkinje fibers.

TRUE

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What percentage of conduction blocks are associated with ischemia?

40%

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How many types of conduction blocks are there?

4

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Which conduction block is known to be a "complete heart block"?

Third-degree AV block

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True or False: "Hay Block" is also known as Mobitz I?

FALSE

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Left bundle branch block is associated with which ventricle?

LV

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Right bundle branch block is most likely observed in which ECG leads?

V1 and V2

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How does one determine first-degree AV block from normal sinus rhythm?

Measuring the PR interval

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 What is the common treatment for third degree AV block?

External or internal pacemaker

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True or False: Patients will have symptoms with first degree AV block

FALSE

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What are the three major types of cardiomyopathies?

Dilated, Hypertrophic, or Restrictive

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True or False: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is another term used to describe left ventricular hypertrophy?

FALSE

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A common ECG finding for dilated cardiomyopathy is?

Atrial Flutter

Atrial Fibrillation 

Tachy-arrhythmias 

Inverted T-waves

Small QRS wave heights

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What are the five types of restrictive/infiltrative cardiomyopathy?

Amyloidosis, Sarcoidosis, Hemochromatosis, Pompe disease, and endomyocardial fibrosis

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What is the most common type of restrictive/infiltrative cardiomyopathy?

Amyloidosis

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Which cardiomyopathy is the least common?

Restrictive / Infiltrative Cardiomyopathy (R/I CM)

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The S-wave in V1 added to the R wave in V5-V6 should be greater than _____ to be considered hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

35 mm

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Which part of the myocardium is most commonly affected by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

he intraventricular septum

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Which part of the ECG complex is most commonly affected by atrial enlargement?

P wave

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True or False: A large QRS amplitude is the only finding to confirm left ventricular hypertrophy?

FALSE

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normal

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ischemia

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MI

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True or False: A denervated heart loses its conduction system and cannot generate impulses?

FALSE

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Which group of cells initiates the heartbeat under normal conditions?

SA node

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A troponin blood test is most commonly used to evaluate:

Heart attack (myocardial infarction)

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Which phase corresponds to ventricular depolarization on the ECG (QRS complex)?

Phase 0

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The plateau phase (Phase 2) of ventricular action potential is maintained by:

Calcium influx balanced by potassium efflux

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In transplanted hearts, the loss of vagal tone leads to a _____ resting heart rate

fast

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 Pacemaker cells begin at approximately ____ and slowly drift upward toward threshold due to funny currents

-60 mV

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Which protein does calcium bind to in order to initiate contraction?

Troponin

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The long refractory period of cardiac muscle prevents ___________?

tetanic contractions (tetany)

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Pacemaker cells lack a true resting potential because of:

Funny currents (slow sodium leak)

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The process by which calcium entry triggers more calcium release from the SR is called ___________?

calcium-induced calcium release (CICR)

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Why is stress echo especially useful in transplant patients?

They lack angina symptoms due to denervation

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In contractile myocytes, the resting membrane potential is about _____?

-90 mV

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True or False: The relative refractory period means the heart cannot fire again under any circumstance

FALSE

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segment

end to beginning

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interval

beginning to end