ASRT SEAL Exam 7 - RTT KB

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Last updated 11:47 PM on 8/11/26
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101 Terms

1
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An informed consent form includes which of the following? Please select all that apply.

-An authorization for the health care professional to perform an examination or procedure.

-A disclosure clause that explains the procedure and its risks and benefits.

-A patient understanding clause stating that the patient understands the procedure.

-A list of reasonable alternatives that are available, and the likely outcome if the patient declines treatment.

2
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Progressive loss of body weight, fat and muscle are characteristic of __________ with an overall change

in a patient's general health and associated with increased morbidity.

Cachexia

3
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Contact precautions would be used for which of the following conditions?

Clostridium difficile

4
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What are cancer-causing agents called?

Carcinogens

5
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These are devices that are simply structured and are designed to place the patient in a particular position

for daily treatment.

Positioning aids

6
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If the dose in free space is 200 cGy and the backscatter is 1.05, what is the dose at D-max?

210 cGy

7
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What term is used for an incident that did not reach the patient?

Near miss

8
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Coulomb per kilogram measurement in air is the unit for radiation:

exposure

9
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Bite blocks are used to position the chin and position the _____________ out of the treatment field.

Tongue

10
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What is the most common cause of tissue damage?

Hypoxia

11
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What is a disadvantage of film-based dosimeters?

Temperature sensitivity

12
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Half value layers must be defined by both energy and _______.

attenuating material

13
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____________ jaws are used to block off a part of the field without changing the position of the isocenter.

Asymmetric jaws

14
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What is the unit of measurement for absorbed dose?

Gray (Gy)

15
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The ________ can be used to straighten and align a patient for head and neck simulation/treatment.

External auditory meatus (EAM)

16
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The attenuation rates displayed in a CT simulator as pixels of different shades of gray are called:

Hounsfield unit (HU)

17
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Which of the following puts patients at risk for having a reaction to IV contrast? Please select all that

-Being older than 50

-having diabetes

-impaired kidney function

18
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How long should hands be washed after contact with bodily fluids?

40-60 seconds.

19
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Exposure (X) is measured using:

Coulomb per kilogram of air (C/kg).

20
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Which structure is NOT retroperitoneal?

Transverse colon.

21
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What is the study of the cause of disease called?

Etiology.

22
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Using virtual simulation, the no-shift method can avoid potential errors in patient positioning because the

isocenter and patient markings are placed __________.

with the patient in scan position

23
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What is the study of the incidence of disease called?

Epidemiology.

24
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When is using an alcohol-based hand scrub acceptable?

Following a handshake with a patient.

25
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Which of the following are rules of body mechanics that should be adhered to when moving objects or

patients in the radiology department?

Push heavy objects; avoid pulling.

26
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What is isocenter defined as?

The point where the gantry, collimator, and couch rotate.

27
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What hazard in the radiation therapy room can cause retinal eye damage?

Laser beams.

28
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Which of the following is FALSE regarding patient access to health records?

A facility cannot prohibit patient access to their health care information.

29
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A(n) ________ document dictates in advance how a patient would like to be treated if they become

unable to make health care decisions.

Living will.

30
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Which of the following are disadvantages of using the shift method for CT simulation planning, which can

cause errors in patient set-up? Please select all that apply.

-Inexact remarking of patient

-scan performed prior to treatment

-difficult exact corrections.

31
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Which brain structure has a space that allows cerebral spinal fluid to flow and contains the brains major

arteries?

Subarachnoid space.

32
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What is an infectious agent termed?

Pathogen.

33
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How is field size normally defined?

at the machines isocenter

34
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Where is the field size defined in radiation therapy?

At the patient's isocenter.

35
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If the exposure is 10 Gy at a distance of 100 cm, the exposure is _____ if the distance is changed to 50

cm.

40 Gy.

-According to the inverse square law (I1/I2 = d22/d21), if the distance is reduced to one-half of its original

value, the exposure increases by a factor of 4 (10 Gy x 4 = 40 Gy).

36
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In treating with an electron beam, the tumor dose will be calculated and carried according to which

isodose line(s)?

50% isodose line.

37
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Leak testing for brachytherapy sources must be capable of detecting the presence of ______ microcurie

(µCi)

0.005 µCi.

38
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The scattering foil is placed in the path of the beam when this modality of radiation is used for the

patient's treatment.

electrons.

39
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The advantage of multiple fields over single treatment fields is based on:

The principle of additive dose to tumor from all fields.

40
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A densitometer is used for measuring dose values on what type of dosimeter?

Film badge.

41
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The removal of photons and electrons from a radiation beam either by scattering or absorption as it

travels through the medium is called?

Attenuation.

42
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When Compton interactions take place, they are more likely to occur with the:

Outer shell electrons.

43
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Which transmission route can be described as the susceptible host making physical contact with the

source of infection, which is either an infected or a colonized person.

direct contact

44
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What could a radiation therapist do if the TV monitoring system fails during a patient's treatment?

Stop all treatments until it is fixed.

45
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Which structures in the head and neck region have little to no lymphatic vessels?

True vocal cords, middle ear, and paranasal sinuses.

46
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The ________ protects patients who volunteer to participate in clinical research as a patient or health

subject.

Patient's Bill of Rights.

47
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The testicles will drain first to the _____ lymph nodes.

Paraortic lymph nodes.

48
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Recesses on the treatment table which allow the immobilization device to be positioned exactly the same

way daily, is known as ____________.

Indexing.

49
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Which of the radiation volumes below includes the largest amount of tissue?

Treatment volume.

50
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Which of the following is an example of a complex immobilization device? Please select all that apply.

-thermoplastic molds

-vacuum cushion

-fomaing agents

51
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Monthly field flatness must be within ________ for electrons and _________ for x-rays for linear

accelerators.

3%, 2%

52
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If a patient presents with cancer in the oropharynx region, what is the MOST common site for this

disease to occur?

Tonsils

53
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The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) recommends an occupational

radiation dose limit to a fetus of _____ during an entire pregnancy.

5 mSv

54
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Measurement tools used to assess a patient's nutritional status include which of the following? Please

select all that apply.

-Scored-Patient Generated Subjective Global Assessment (PG-SGA)

-Malnutrition Screening Tool (MST)

55
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For radiation protection purposes, what is the Quality Factor for a photon?

1

56
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4D-CT gives the ability to account for tumor ___________.

motion

57
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Which of the following is NOT a property of x-ray beams?

can be focused.

58
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What is the most common site for osteosarcoma?

Femur

59
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What fraction of the maximum permissible dose of occupational workers is allowed for the general public?

1/4

60
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Laser systems assist in treatment set up in which of the following ways? Please select all that apply.

-Providing visual reference to the location of isocenter

-facilitating alignment of machine coordinates with external patient landmarks.

61
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________ precautions should be applied if the patient is known to be infected with a pathogen such as

tuberculosis.

Airborne

62
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In a linear accelerator, what sits between the waveguide and the klystron or magnetron that prevents the

backflow of microwaves into the klystron or magnetron?

The circulator

63
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Why is ensuring audio and visual communication during treatment delivery important? Please select all

that apply.

-The therapist may need to communicate instructions to the patient during treatment delivery.

-The patient may need assistance during treatment delivery.

-Patient movement may result in missing the treatment volume.

64
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A physical change in a patient's metabolic status, recognized as a first symptom of cancer is

_______________.

Weight loss

65
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Name the vessel that sits in the brain that allows most of arterial blood flow to the cerebrum?

Circle of Willis

66
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Linear accelerators typically have a source to axis distance (SAD) of ___________, whereas cobalt units

typically have a SAD of ___________.

100 cm, 80 cm

67
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What type of dosimeter is lithium fluoride used for?

Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)

68
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A back pointer is used to:

Define the exit of the central ray of a field.

69
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What is the purpose of a control dosimeter?

To serve as a reference value to be subtracted from other dosimeters.

70
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The wedge angle is defined as the angle the central axis makes with the _______ isodose line.

50%

71
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How are X-rays characterized?

By short wavelength and high frequency.

72
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________ interaction occurs when a photon ejects a loosely bound outer shell electron.

Compton

73
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What should a technologist NOT do when cleaning up a chemical spill?

Restock the spilled chemical quickly.

74
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What is the Gray (Gy) a unit measure for?

Absorbed dose.

75
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The thinner side of the wedge would attenuate ________ than the thicker side of the wedge.

Less

76
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A photon can retain approximately two-thirds of its original energy when it undergoes a ________

interaction.

Compton

77
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CT window level represents the ____________.

The central Hounsfield unit (HU) of all the CT numbers.

78
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A symptom is a(an) _____________ indication a patient recognizes as a change or condition.

subjective

79
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Where does the thoracic aorta, also known as the descending aorta, begin?

After leaving the arch of the aorta.

80
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What is the purpose of a 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order?

To prevent the initiation of CPR.

81
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CT simulation uses the _________ display to view the anatomy from the perspective of the treatment

beam.

Beam's eye view.

82
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In breast cancer, what is the major lymph node group that is important in deciding disease prognosis?

Axillary lymph nodes.

83
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What is the main difference between compensating filters and bolus?

Bolus increases the skin dose, filters do not

84
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_____ is the portion of the brain stem that is located anterior to the cerebellum.

Pons

85
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Protons have a quality factor of ____.

2

86
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What does the beam of a 6 MV linear accelerator consist of?

Photons having an average energy of 6 MV.

87
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What is the purpose of light field/radiation field coincidence tests?

To prevent geographic miss of the tumor.

88
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How does filtration affect the primary beam?

It increases the average energy of the primary beam.

89
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What can a belly board be used for in radiation therapy?

To displace the small bowel.

90
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When an incoming high-speed electron interacts with the electric field of the nucleus and is decelerated,

it gives up its lost energy in the form of a photon. The electron will then leave the atom with less energy

than it had when it entered. What effect is this?

Bremsstrahlung effect

91
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Treatment accuracy, reproducibility, and integrity of patient position is enhanced through the simulation,

set up and treatment delivery by the use of ______________.

Immobilization devices

92
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________ is a product of the absorbed dose multiplied by a radiation weighting factor.

Equivalent dose

93
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The ___________ mode of transmission spreads pathogens through contaminated objects such as a

patient's belongings.

Indirect contact

94
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Personnel cumulative radiation monitoring is NOT performed with a(n):

Pocket ion chamber

95
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When performing AAPM monthly quality checks on the alignment of the gantry lasers with the center of

the imaging plane in the CT simulator, what is the level of tolerance?

2 mm

96
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________ consent does NOT require a signed statement by the patient.

Implied consent

97
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The safety and accuracy of a patient treatment is ensured by monitoring during the exposure. This is

done by:

By maintaining visual or audio contact.

98
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In what region of the lung is adenocarcinoma MOST commonly found?

Periphery

99
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What is considered the MOST common invasive breast cancer?

Ductal carcinoma

100
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The celiac lymph group, superior and inferior mesentery lymph node groups drain the digestive system.

Where do these 3 lymph groups enter the system at?

Cisterna chyli