Nucleic Acid Synthesis Inhibitors Part 3

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Last updated 8:35 AM on 7/11/26
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67 Terms

1
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What are rifamycins?

A group of macrocyclic antibiotics produced by Streptomyces mediterranei.

2
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Name the major rifamycins.

Rifamycin, rifampin (rifampicin), and rifamide.

3
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Are rifamycins bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal.

4
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What enzyme is inhibited by rifamycins?

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

5
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How do rifamycins inhibit bacterial growth?

They bind to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, preventing RNA chain initiation and RNA synthesis.

6
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Why are mammalian cells less affected by rifamycins?

Much higher drug concentrations are required to inhibit mammalian RNA polymerase.

7
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Which combination is commonly used to treat Rhodococcus equi infection in foals?

Rifampin combined with a macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin, or clarithromycin).

8
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Which Gram-positive bacteria are susceptible to rifampin?

Staphylococcus spp., including methicillin-resistant strains, and Streptococcus spp.

9
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Which intracellular pathogen is an important target of rifampin?

Rhodococcus equi.

10
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Which other bacteria are susceptible to rifampin?

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, Bacteroides spp., Clostridium spp., Neisseria spp., and Listeria spp.

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Which bacteria are resistant to rifampin?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, Enterobacter spp., Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus spp., and Salmonella spp.

12
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For which mycobacterial diseases is rifampin commonly used in veterinary medicine?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis in elephants and Mycobacterium paratuberculosis in cattle and sheep.

13
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Does rifampin eradicate Mycobacterium paratuberculosis?

No, it may induce remission but does not eradicate the organism.

14
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With which antifungal does rifampin show synergism?

Amphotericin B.

15
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How is rifampin absorbed?

Readily but incompletely from the gastrointestinal tract.

16
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In what environment is rifampin absorption greatest?

An acidic environment.

17
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How does feeding affect rifampin absorption?

It decreases oral absorption in foals and ruminants.

18
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Why is rifampin effective against intracellular organisms?

It penetrates tissues and cells extensively.

19
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Where is rifampin widely distributed?

Most body tissues and body fluids.

20
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Which organs contain high concentrations of rifampin?

Lungs, pulmonary epithelial lining fluid, liver, bile, and urine.

21
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How is rifampin eliminated?

Primarily through bile and to a lesser extent through urine.

22
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What type of cycling occurs with rifampin?

Enterohepatic cycling.

23
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What major adverse effect is associated with rifampin?

Hepatotoxicity.

24
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What harmless body fluid discoloration can rifampin cause?

Red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and saliva.

25
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Why should rifampin be avoided during pregnancy?

It is teratogenic.

26
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What are nitrofurans?

Synthetic antimicrobial drugs derived from 5-nitrofuran.

27
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Which nitro group is essential for nitrofuran activity?

The 5-nitro group.

28
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Name the commonly used nitrofurans.

Nitrofurantoin and nitrofurazone.

29
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Which nitrofuran has been banned in food-producing animals?

Furazolidone.

30
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How are nitrofurans activated?

They are reduced by bacterial reductase enzymes to reactive intermediates.

31
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How do nitrofurans inhibit bacteria?

They cause DNA fragmentation, inhibit nucleic acid synthesis, and interfere with microbial enzymes.

32
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Are nitrofurans bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bacteriostatic.

33
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Which nitrofuran is mainly used for lower urinary tract infections?

Nitrofurantoin.

34
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Which nitrofuran is mainly used as a topical antimicrobial?

Nitrofurazone.

35
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Why are nitrofurans ineffective for systemic infections?

They achieve very low blood and tissue concentrations.

36
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In what environment are nitrofurans most active?

Acidic environments.

37
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What enhances nitrofurantoin absorption?

Administration with food.

38
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How is nitrofurantoin eliminated?

Rapidly by the kidneys, mainly through tubular secretion.

39
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What CNS adverse effects can occur with nitrofurans?

Excitement, tremors, convulsions, and peripheral neuritis.

40
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What gastrointestinal adverse effects are associated with nitrofurans?

Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

41
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What reproductive adverse effect can occur with nitrofurans?

Depression of spermatogenesis.

42
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Why is furazolidone banned in food-producing animals?

Because of its mutagenic and carcinogenic potential.

43
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How common is bacterial resistance to nitrofurans?

Rare and develops slowly.

44
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Is there cross-resistance among nitrofurans?

Yes, complete cross-resistance exists within the class.

45
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Is there cross-resistance between nitrofurans and other antibacterial classes?

No.

46
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What are nitroimidazoles?

Heterocyclic drugs with antibacterial and antiprotozoal activity.

47
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Which drug is the prototype nitroimidazole?

Metronidazole.

48
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Name the major nitroimidazoles.

Metronidazole, ronidazole, ipronidazole, and dimetridazole.

49
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How are nitroimidazoles activated?

Through nonenzymatic reduction under anaerobic conditions.

50
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How do nitroimidazoles damage bacteria?

Their cytotoxic metabolites bind DNA, causing strand breakage and loss of DNA function.

51
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Why are nitroimidazoles ineffective against aerobic bacteria?

Aerobic bacteria lack the reductive pathway required for drug activation.

52
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Are nitroimidazoles bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal.

53
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Which bacteria are highly susceptible to metronidazole?

Bacteroides spp., Fusobacterium spp., and Clostridium spp.

54
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Against which protozoa is metronidazole effective?

Giardia lamblia, Tritrichomonas foetus, Entamoeba spp., and Histomonas meleagridis.

55
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What are the principal clinical indications of metronidazole?

Anaerobic bacterial infections and protozoal infections.

56
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Which additional therapeutic role does metronidazole have?

It acts as a radiosensitizer during radiotherapy.

57
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How is metronidazole absorbed?

Well absorbed orally.

58
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Does metronidazole cross the blood-brain barrier?

Yes.

59
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Where else does metronidazole achieve therapeutic concentrations?

Abscesses and empyema fluid.

60
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How is metronidazole eliminated?

By hepatic metabolism followed by renal and biliary excretion.

61
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What neurologic adverse effects are associated with high-dose metronidazole?

Tremors, muscle spasms, ataxia, convulsions, and CNS excitement.

62
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What hematologic adverse effect can metronidazole cause?

Reversible bone marrow depression.

63
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What harmless discoloration may occur with metronidazole therapy?

Reddish-brown urine.

64
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Why is metronidazole contraindicated in food-producing animals and pregnancy?

Because of its carcinogenic and teratogenic potential.

65
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How common is resistance to metronidazole?

Rare.

66
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What is the primary mechanism of nitroimidazole resistance?

Reduced intracellular drug activation.

67
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Is cross-resistance complete among nitroimidazoles?

Yes.