Green book examination 1

1. before tracer administration all of the following preparations are required for a 27 year old woman referred for total body bone imaging except

A) removing attenuating materials from the patient

B) answering the patients questions

C) ruling out pregnancy

D) explaining the procedure to the patient

E) swab the injection site with alcohol

A) removing attenuating materials from the patient

2. which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of children

A) diaphyses of the long bones

B) breast tissue

C) lumbar spine and cranium

D) costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates

E) metatarsals

D) costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates

3. If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation for these findings is that the:

A) patient was imaged to soon after tracer administration

B) patients renal function is compromised

C) radiopharmaceutical contained excess free Tc99 pertechnetate

D) incorrect radiopharmaceutical was administered

E) radiopharmaceutical contained excess free F18 sodium

C) radiopharmaceutical contained excess free Tc99 pertechnetate

4. for interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images a chest x-ray is required to

A) rule out possible causes of the pts symptoms

B) determine cardiac size

C) rule out previous lung surgery

D) rule out a pulmonary embolus

E) rule in a pulmonary embolus

A) rule out possible causes of the pts symptoms

5. The image shown here was obtained after the administration of Tc99m MAA which of the following is most likely explanation for the quality of this lung perfusion image

A) the image shows lung pathology

B) there is radioactive contamination of the patients skin or the camera detector

C) blood clotted to MAA particles was injected intravenously

D) too many MAA particles were administered to the patient

E) a left to right shunt occurred in the heart

C) blood clotted to MAA particles was injected intravenously

6. the purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb

A) bacteria

B) carbon dioxide

C) xenon gas

D) moisture

E) oxygen

C) xenon gas

7. radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals

A) Tc99m pentetate

B) Tc99m pertechnetate

C) Tc99m Exametazime

D) Tc99m mebrofenin

E) Tc99m MAA

E) Tc99m MAA

8. If ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the technologist can expect to find it most commonly in which of the following areas:

A)brain

B)skull

C) in the nasopharynx

D) in the mediastinum

E) behind the optic nerve

D) in the mediastinum

9. during parathyroid imaging images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained to

A) correct the image series for patient motion

B) visualize substernal thyroid tissue

C) visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue

D) diagnose hyperparathyroidism

E) to localize the parathyroid

C) visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue

10. when performing a gated equilibrium cardiac study, which of the following anatomical views best separates the right and left ventricle

A) left lateral

B) LAO

C) LPO

D) anterior

E) posterior

B) LAO

11. in preparation for a Ti201 stress test patients are instructed to fast to

A) prevent gastrointestinal upset during exercise

B) minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract

C) enhance myocardial tracer uptake

D) standardize test conditions among patients

E) prevent redistribution of tracer

B) minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract

12. which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing remain in the plasma for the greatest length of time

A) dobutamine

B) adenosine

C) nitroglycerin

D) dipyridamole

E) regadenoson

D) dipyridamole

13. SPECT liver imaging with Tc99m sulfur colloid is performed how soon after tracer administration?

A) immediately

B) 10-15 minutes

C) 30-45mins

D) 1 -2 hours

E) 3-4 hours

B) 10-15 minutes

14. significantly increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images

A) kidneys

B) colon

C) lungs

D) spleen

E) pancreas

A) kidneys

15. localization of a meckels diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals

A) Ga67 citrate

B) Tc99m pentetate

C) Tc99m MAA

D) Tc99m sulfur colloid

E) Tc99m pertechnetate

E) Tc99m pertechnetate

16. in infants, 24 hours images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux

A) nasopharynx

B) lung fields

C) stomach

D) upper small intestine

E) lower esophagus

B) lung fields

17. effective renal plasma flow ERPF is measured with which of the following RPHX

A) Tc99m pentetate

B) Tc99m Disofenin

C) Tc99m medronate

D) Tc99m mertiatide

E) Tc99m exametazime

D) Tc99m mertiatide

18. evaluating the quality of a bolus injection is best accomplished by which of the following techniques

A) generating a time activity curve for the superior vena cava

B) calculating the cardiac transit time

C) determining the heart to lung ratio

D) imaging the injection site for residual activity

E) visually inspecting the bolus

A) generating a time activity curve for the superior vena cava

19. which of the following is/are not normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72hrs after tracer administration

A) nasopharynx

B) lacrimal glands

C) kidneys

D) liver

E) sternum

C) kidneys

20. which of the following statements about " transmission based precautions

" false

A) these precautions are applied when a pt is known to be infected with a communicable disease

B) these precautions replace "standard precautions"

C) these precautions include guidelines for airborne and droplet borne diseases

D) these precautions include guidelines for contact transmitted diseases

E) these precautions must be implemented in the case of diseases such as varicella, tuberculosis and mumps

B) these precautions replace "standard precautions"

21. which of the following statements about pentetreotide is true

A) it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect

B) it is a labeled antibody

C) it is a labeled antigen

D) it is excreted exclusively through the kidneys

E) it is labeled with Tc99m

A) it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect

22. the purpose of using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent is to

A) tranquilize the pts

B) localize brain tumors

C) localize the area of the brain from which seizures arise

D) evaluate cerebrovascular hematoma

E) evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia

E) evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia

23. the techs responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include

A) ensuring that personnel and the surrounding are not contaminated with radioactivity

B) obtaining consent to perform the procedure

C) delivering antihistamines for any adverse reactions to the procedure

D) testing the pressure of the cerebrospinal fluid

E) performing the lumbar puncture

A) ensuring that personnel and the surrounding are not contaminated with radioactivity

24. sodium phosphate P32 may be used to treat which of the following conditions

A) liver metastases

B) lupus

C) rheumatoid arthritis

D) malignant effusions

E) polycythemia vera

E) polycythemia vera

25. supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administered to the pt for therapy with which of the following rphx

A) Sm153 lexidronam

B) Sr89 chloride

C) I-131 Sodium iodide

D) I131 tositumomab

E) Y90 chloride

D) I131 tositumomab

26. the first step that a tech should initiate in a safe environment when an adult patient is determined to be unresponsive is to

A) perform chest compressions

B) establish an airway

C) check for a carotid pulse

D) call for help

E) perform rescue breathing

D) call for help

27. In-111 pentetreotide should not be administered through an intravenous line containing

A) water

B) a total parenteral nutrition mixture

C) check for a carotid pulse

D) call for help

E) perform rescue breathing

B) a total parenteral nutrition mixture

28. Dual-isotope gastric emptying studies use which radio-pharmaceutical for the solid phase of the study and which radio-pharmaceutical for the liquid phase of the study?

solid phase is labeled with with Tc99m sulfur colloid and the liquid phase is mixed with In-111 pentetate

29. proper placement of a urine collection bag includes

A) placing it across the pts lower legs to keep it near the level of the bladder

B) placing it on the stretcher near the pts feet so it is out of the field of view of the camera

C) discharging the urine collection bag must be done before the exam begins

D) hanging it from an IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder

E) hanging it from the imaging table so it is lower than the level of the bladder

E) hanging it from the imaging table so it is lower than the level of the bladder

30. which of the following rphx can be used to assess vesicoureteral reflux by the indirect method

A) Tc99m pertechnetate

B) Tc99m sulfur colloid

C) Tc99m penetate

D) Tc99m medronate

E) Tc99m albumin

C) Tc99m penetate

31. If .02ug/kg of cholecystokinin is needed for a hepatobiliary study what volume needs to be drawn for a 175lb pt with a solution of 10ug/ml available to draw from

A) .115mL

B) .129Ml

C) .134mL

D) .149mL

E) .159mL

E) .159mL

32. parenteral administration of a drug or rphx would include all of the following except

A) oral

B) intramuscular

C) subcutaneous

D) intravenous

E) intrathecal

A) oral

33. the red cell survival test is most often performed on a pt with suspected

A) hemolytic anemia

B) intestinal malabsorption

C) iron deficiency anemia

D) pernicious anemia

E) GI bleed

A) hemolytic anemia

34. a tech confirms a referring physicians request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by

A) asking floor nurse

B) telephoning the pts physician for confirmation

C) locating the order for the test in the pts medical records

D) conferring with the nuclear medicine physician

E) asking the pt why he came to the nuclear med department

C) locating the order for the test in the pts medical records

35. which type of collimator should be used for organ counting during a red cell sequestration study

A) LEHS parallel hole

B) HELR parallel hole

C) pinhole

D) flat field

E) converging

D) flat field

36. If a plasma volume has been determined to be 15L, which of the following events has most likely occurred:

A)completion of a satisfactory study

B)over-hydration of the patient

C)dehydration of the pt

D) patient did not fast for the study

E) infiltration of the traccer

E) infiltration of the tracer

37. a biohazard warning label would be found on all of the following except a

A) contaminated sharps container

B) refrigerator containing potentially infectious material

C) receptacle for contaminated laundry

D) unit of blood released for clinical use

E) uncontaminated sharps container

D) unit of blood released for clinical use

38. the total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the plasma volume measured with labeled albumin by the

A) hematocrit

B) plasmacrit

C) corrected hematocrit

D) corrected plasmacrit

E) hemoglobin

D) corrected plasmacrit

39. if radioactivity in the circulation from a previous nuclear medicine test is unaccounted for, results of a plasma volume determination will be

A) falsely decreased

B) falsely elevated

C) positive

D) impossible to predict

E) unaffected

A) falsely decreased

40. the recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before renal imaging in hypertension study is

A) 10-15mg

B) 25-30mg

C) 25-50mg

D) 55-100mg

E) 105-110mg

C) 25-50mg

41. imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes what area of the body

A) head and chest

B) chest

C) abdomen

D) head to upper femurs

E) lower extremities

D) head to upper femurs

42. a patient scheduled for for scintimammography has symptoms involving her left breast. WHich of the following sites is the best choice for injection of the RPHX

A) subcutaneous in the left breast

B) right carotid artery

C) right AC area

D) left hand

E) left carotid artery

C) right AC area

43. Based on the net counts data shown here:

Right lung: 175,362

Left lung: 325,672

What is the percentage perfusion to the right lung?

a. 30%

b. 35%

c. 54%

d. 65%

b. 35%

44. If 375 mCi 99mTc are present on the column of a 99Mo/99Tc generator and after elution 342 mCi 99mTc are assayed in the elution vial, the approximate elution efficiency of the generator is:

a. 110%

b. 91%

c. 33%

d. 11%

e. 5%

b. 91%

45. 250 kilobecquerels are equivalent to how many microcuries?

a. 0.25 uCi

b. 0.55 uCi

c. 6.76 uCi

d. 9.25 uCi

e. 10.35 uCi

c. 6.76 uCi

46. If a Mo99/Tc99m generator is eluted on Monday at 0600, the max Tc-99m activity could next be eluted at what time?

A) 0600 on tuesday

B) 1200 on monday

C) 1800 on monday

D) 0600 on wednesday

E) 1200 on tuesday

A) 0600 on tuesday

47. according to the NRC, Mo99 contamination in Tc99m eluate must be measured how often?

A) weekly

B) daily

C) only after the first elution

D) yearly

E) after each elution

C) only after the first elution

48. if these results shown were obtained when Tc99m eluate was assayed for Mo99 breakthrough at 0600 immediately after elution

Mo99=10uCi

Tc99m= 416 mCi

which of the following statements about this elution at 1700 is true

A) the eluate should not be used to label compounds with Tc99m

B) the eluate does not contain sufficient Tc99m activity

C) the eluate does not contain sufficient Mo99 activity

D) the eluate must not be administered to the pt

E) the eluate may be administered to pts

E) the eluate may be administered to pts

49. A tech performs an aluminum ion breakthrough test on the Tc99m eluate and obtains the following results. When the indicator paper is spotted with aluminum ion solution, a faint red color is observed but when the paper is spotted with eluate no color change is observed. This indicates:

A) abscense of radionuclidic impurities in the eluate

C) the aluminum ion concentration in the eluate is below the USP limit

D) the aluminum ion solution contains less aluminum than the eluat

E)the eluate should be discarded

C) the aluminum ion concentration in the eluate is below the USP limit

50. all of the following procedures may be performed with Tc99m Sulfur colloid except

A) gastric emptying study

B) gastroesophageal reflux

C) gastrointestinal bleeding localization

D) meckels diverticulum localization

E) bone marrow imaging

D) meckels diverticulum localization

Based on the day's clinic schedule shown here:

Patient A - Thyroid uptake and image

Patient B - Therapy for hyperthyroidism

Patient C - Cisternogram.

The tech should prepare or order what radio-parmaceuticals?

A) I-123 Sodium ioide, I131 sodium iodide, and In111 pentetate

B) In111 oxine and I-123 sodium iodide

C) I-123 sodium iodide, Tc99m sulfur colloid, Tc99m macroaggreted albumin

D) I-131 sodium ioide and In-111 chloride

E) I-131 human serum albumin, I-131 sodium ioide, and Tc99m pertechnetate

A) I-123 Sodium ioide, I131 sodium iodide, and In111 pentetate

If an MAA kit must be reconstituted with 3.5mL of 99mTc-pertechnetate, what are the consequences if only 2.0mL are added to the kit?

A) pts will receive more MAA particles per milliliter of Tc99m MAA

B) pts will receive more pertechnetate per milliliter of recommended pt dose

C) pts will receive the recommended number of particles if the correct activity is administered

D) the resulting perfusion lung images will have the appearance of decreased tracer uptake

E) pts will receive fewer MAA particles per milliliter of Tc99m MAA

A) pts will receive more MAA particles per milliliter of Tc99m MAA

reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate is administered to the pt in which red blood cell labeling method

A) in vitro method

B) both the in vivo method and the modified in vivo method

C) modified in vivo method

D) both the in vitro method and the in vivo method

E) in vivo method

B) both the in vivo method and the modified in vivo method

which of the following RPHX kit formulations is light sensitive

A) sestamibi

B) oxidronate

C) mertiatide

D) exametazime

E) pertechnetate

C) mertiatide

when performing radiochromatography on a RPHX sample, the solvent front is located 8.5cm from the origin and the radiochemical impurity is at the origin. What is the Rf value of the radiochemical impurity

A) -.5

B) 0

C) 1

D) 8.5

E) .85

B) 0

according to the USP, most Tc99m labeled rphx should have a radiochemical purity of at least what percentage to be administered to pts

A) 98%

B) 95%

C) 90%

D) 88%

E) 85%

C) 90%

a tech must administer 8mCi of mebrofenin to a pt at 1100. on the basis of this vial label information:

cal: 0700 augest 4

total activity 100mCi

total volume 8.5ml

concentration 11.8mCi/mL

expiration 1500 august 4

What volume of Tc99m mebrofenin should be administered to the pt

A) 1.1mL

B) .92mL

C) .68mL

D) .52 mL

E) .13 mL

A) 1.1mL

a tech must administer 37MBq of Ti201 thallous chloride at 1000 on feb 16. On the basis of the vial label information

cal 1200 feb 14

Total activity 222 MBq

total volume 4.0mL

concentration 55.5MBq/mL

expiration 1200 feb 17

What volume should be administered to the pt

A) 1mL

B) .96 mL

C) .84mL

D) .44mL

E) .23 mL

A) 1mL

a tech needs 4mCi Ti-201 thallous chloride at 0800 on june 29. The label on the rphx vial contains this information

Total activity- 10mCi

Total volume 5.5mL

assay 1200 july 1

what volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on june 29

A) 3.6mL

B) 1.35mL

C) .74mL

D) .28mL

E) .13mL

B) 1.35mL

which RPHX is used to label red blood cells with Tc99m

A) Tc99m albumin

B) Tc99m pertechnetate

C) Tc99m sulfur colloid

D) Tc99m pyrophosphate

E) Tc99m exametazime

B) Tc99m pertechnetate

which of the following rphx is used to label white blood cells with Tc99m

A) Tc99m bicisate

B) Tc99m sulfur colloid

C) Tc99m pertechnetate

D) Tc99m sestamibi

E) Tc99m exametazime

E) Tc99m exametazime

When Tc99m exametazime is used to label white blood cells, which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation?

A) Tc99m pertechnetate

B) .9% sodium chloride

C) heparin

D) methylene blue stabilizer

E) ACD solution

D) methylene blue stabilizer

If 4 millicuries of 201Tl Thallous chloride is the prescribed unit dosage which of the following dose calibrator measurements, according to the NRC verifies that a dosage within acceptable limits has been dispensed into the syringe

3.5mCi

4.0mCi

4.3 mCi

4.5mCi

A. I only

B. II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, or III only

E. I, II, III, or IV only

E. I, II, III, or IV only

in labeling red blood cells with radiochromium, the order of components to be added to the vial containing ACD solution is

A) radiochromium, ACD, pt blood, ascorbic acid

B) radiochromium, pt blood, ascorbic acid

C) radiochromium , ascorbic acid , pt blood

D) pt blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid

E) ascorbic acid, radiochromium, pt blood

D) pt blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid

if a unit dosage of Tc99m MAA contains 148MBq and 325000 particles in .75mL at 1000 approximately how many particles will be contained in 148MBq at 1600

A) 162500

B) 325000

C) 433333

D) 522000

E) 650000

E) 650000

If a unit dosage of radioactivity contains 4.5mCi in 1.2mL, how many mL must be removed so that 3.5mCi remain in the syringe:

A)0.93mL

B)0.78mL

C)0.42mL

D)0.27mL

E) .02mL

C)0.42mL

if a rphx kid must be reconstituted with 30mCi contained in 5mL and the eluate has an activity of 350mCi in 7mL, how many milliliters of preservative-free saline must be added

A) .6mL

B) 4.4mL

C) 4.9mL

D) 5.2mL

E) 6mL

B) 4.4mL

what is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000g for 5 min but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500g

A) 2 min

B) 2.5min

C) 7.5min

D) 10 min

E) 12.5 min

D) 10 min

According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the following signs:

A)no posting is required

B)"Caution: no food or drink

C)"Caution: radiation area

D)"Caution: radioactive materials

D)"Caution: radioactive materials

which of the following exposure rates indicate that a package containing radioactive material must have a category III DOT lable

package a at surface= 76mR/hr at 1 m= 5.5mR/hr

package b at surface 56mR/hr at 1 m 3.5mR/hr

package c at surface 22mR/hr at 1 m .9mR/hr

package d at surface 1.5mR/hr at 1 m 1mR/hr

package a at surface= 76mR/hr at 1 m= 5.5mR/hr

If a point source produces an exposure rate of 30mR/hr @ 15cm, what is the exposure rate at 40cm from the source:

A) 4.2 mR/hr

B) 8.5mR/hr

C)11.2mR/hr

D)22mR/hr

E) 25mR/hr

A) 4.2 mR/hr

if the half layer (HVL) for I-131 in lead is .3cm what is the minimum thickness of lead that is required to reduce the exposure rate of an I-131 source from 12mR/hr to less than 2mR/hr

A) .3cm

B) .6cm

C) .75cm

D) .9cm

E) 1.2cm

D) .9cm

a pt receives a unit dosage of 89Sr chloride intended for another pt. Which of the following statements about this situation is ture

A) bc the pt received only a unit dosage of 89Sr, no report to the NRC is required

B) according to the NRC this does not constitute a medical event, but a departmental record should be maintained

C) the situation describes a medical event that has to be reported only to the nuclear medicine supervisor and the authorized user

D) no report is necessary since it does not reach the dose threshold for reporting

E) the situation describes a medical event requiring notification of the NRC

E) the situation describes a medical event requiring notification of the NRC

According to the NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is:

A) 150mSv

B) 100mSv

C) 75mSv

D) 50mSv

E) 5mSv

A) 150mSv

a vial of Xe-133 has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter. the reading is twice the background radiation level,, what should be done next

A) remove any radiation symbols from the vail then dispose of it

B) perform a wipe check

C) return the vial to storage

D) vent the radioactivity left in the vial into a fume hood

E) dispose of the vial as biohazardous waste

C) return the vial to storage

according to the NRC wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed

A) on a reasonable schedule

B) every day on which RPHX are used

C) weekly

D) only if contamination

E) monthly

B) every day on which RPHX are used

what is the measured expsoure rate shown on the diagram of the G-M meter 1.7 but the dial is set to x0.1

A) .017mR/hr

B) .17mR/hr

C) 1.7 mR/hr

D) 17 mR/hr

B) .17mR/hr

When opening packages containing radioactive material, which of the steps should be performed first:

A) perform a survey using geiger counter

B) wipe test the package receiving area

C) put on disposable gloves

D) wipe test the package for contaminatino

E) verify the package contents against the packaging slip

C) put on disposable gloves

During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until

A) the exposure rate of the area is less than 3mR/hr

B) the exposure rate of the area cannot be distinguished from background activity

C) the contamination is reduced to a small area

D) no one would receive the maximum allowable total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) if they remained in the area

E) no more contamination can be removed from the area

E) no more contamination can be removed from the area

personnel must wear a radiation monitoring device during work hours if they are

A) exposed to radiation at any time during work hours

B) exposed to radiation above background levels

C) likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure

D) likely to exceed the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure

E) a radiologic tech

C) likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure

a pt can be released after receiving a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical if no other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose from being exposed to the patient, exceeding how many rems

A) .5

B) .7

C) 2.5

D) 5

E) 7

A) .5

If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of 3mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to a background exposure rate of 0.05mR/hr:

A) 5 half lives

B) 6 half lives

C) 7 half lives

D) 8 half lives

E) 9 half lives

B) 6 half lives

According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many years:

A) as long as the facilitys license is in effect

B) 7 years

C) 5 years

D) 4 years

E) 3 years

E) 3 years

which of the following materials is recommended for shildeing syringes containing positron emitting RPHX

A) lead

B) tungsten

C) gold

D) steel

E) plastic lined lead

B) tungsten

if a nuclear medicine tech needs a diagnostic x-ray, how should this exposure be included in his or her occupational exposure record

A) the tech should wear radiation dosimeter during X-ray exam

B) the exposure from the X-ray exam must not be included in the occupational exposure record

C) the RSO will supply a separate dosimeter for the tech to wear during the xray exam

D) a packet dosimeter should be used

E) the RSO will estimate the probable exposure AND add it to the techs permanent records

B) the exposure from the X-ray exam must not be included in the occupational exposure record

according to the standard of practice, if the results of a dose calibrator geometric variation test demonstrate that the measured values exceed the values by 12-15% the tech should

A) repalce the instrument

B) use a correction factor to determine true activites

C) perform a chi square analysis

D) use the actual dose calibrator activity readings

E) have the instrument repaired

B) use a correction factor to determine true activity

a tech measures a Co-57 standard in a dose calibrator on the following settings, Co56, Tc99m, I-123, I-131, Xe-133, and Ti-201 and then calculates the percent difference between the calculated and measured activity. The tech is assessing

A) constancy

B) chi square analysis

C) linearity

D) geometric variation

E) accuracy

A) constancy

89. according to the standard of practice , how often should dose calibrator linearity testing should be performed

A) annually

B) quarterly

C) monthly

D) daily

E) hourly

B) quarterly

90. to repair the non-uniformity demonstrated on the intrinsic uniformity image shown here

A) replace the cystal

B) redo reference map calibration

C) repair the collimator

D) repalce a PMT

E) replace the X, Y localization board

D) replace a PMT

91. which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy

A) Cs137

B) Co57

C) I125

D) I-131

E) Tc99m

A) Cs137

92. which of the following statements about the effect of the filter cut off frequency is true

A) the lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image

B) the higher the cutoff frequency, the nosier the image

C) adjusting the cutoff frequency will not affect image appearance

D) the cutoff frequency cannot be adjusted after the image has been acquired

E) the lower the cutoff frequency, the nosier the image

A) the lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image

93. temporal resolution is related to which of the following acquisition parameters

A) percentage energy window

B) matrix size

C) framing rate

D) collimator

E) crystal size

C) framing rate

94. it would be appropriate to apply temporal smoothing in which of the following studies

A) gated equilibrium cardiac function study

B) SPECT study of the brain

C) SPECT study of the liver

D) thyroid image

E) whole body bone image

A) gated equilibrium cardiac function study

95. if an image is acquired into a 128x128 matrix on a scintillation camera with a 350mm diamter field of view what are the dimensions of each pixel

A) 2.73x2.73mm

B) 3.14 x 3.14mm

C) 5.92 x 5.92 mm

D) 6.51x 6.51 mm

E) 7.83 x 7.83 mm

A) 2.73x2.73mm

96. which of the following instruments should be used to determine whether all removable contamination has been eliminated

A) geiger mueller counter

B) well counter

C) dose calibrator

D) uptake probe

E) cute pie

B) well counter

97. which of the following matrix sizes and acquisition modes would be most appropriate for a blood flow study of the feet

A) 64x64 word

B) 64x64 byte

C) 256x256 byte

D) 256x256 word

E) 512x512 byte

B) 64x64 byte

98. a daily uniformity flood for a scintillation camera should contain a minimum of how many counts

A) 10000

B) 1-2 million

C) 3-5 million

D) 6-10 million

E) 20-30 million

C) 3-5 million

99. as a pinhole collimator is moved farther away from the thyroid, how will it affect the image

A) the gland will appear larger

B) the image will be flipped

C) the gland will appear smaller

D) there is no change in size or orientation

E) right and left are reversed

C) the gland will appear smaller

100. during geometric variation testing of a dose calibrator, activity in 1mL syringe measures 253uCi when the expected reading is 212uCi. Which of the following correction factors should be applied to the measured reading

A) 23.3

B) 4.1

C) 1.19

D) .84

E) .51

D) .84