Muscle & Neural Physiology & Bioenergetics: Key Concepts and Systems

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Last updated 5:11 AM on 6/15/26
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183 Terms

1
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What are myofibrils composed of?

Myofibrils are composed of repeating contractile units called sarcomeres.

2
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During prolonged, moderate-intensity exercise, the body increasingly relies on:

A) Fat

3
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The primary function of an enzyme is to:

C) Lower the activation energy and facilitate breakdown (catabolism)

4
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How many ATP are produced directly (substrate-level) in glycolysis from one glucose?

B) 2 ATP (net)

5
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The immediate source of energy to re-synthesize ATP during the first few seconds of intense exercise is:

C) Phosphocreatine (PCr)

6
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What does the AV node delay allow?

The AV node delay allows the atria to contract before the ventricles.

7
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What effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on heart rate?

Parasympathetic stimulation causes a decreased heart rate.

8
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What effect does sympathetic stimulation have on heart rate?

Sympathetic stimulation causes increased heart rate and increased contractility.

9
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What does Q̇ represent in the Fick equation?

In the Fick equation, Q̇ represents the function of the cardiovascular system.

10
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What does the (a - v̄ )O₂ difference represent in the Fick equation?

It represents how much oxygen the muscles extract from the blood.

11
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What is the primary chemical stimulus that drives ventilation during exercise?

Increased carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) and decreased pH.

12
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According to the Fick equation, what is the primary factor responsible for the increase in VO₂max with training?

Increased (a - v̄ )O₂ difference.

13
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What is NOT a reason for increased blood flow to active muscle with training?

Decreased total blood volume.

14
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What is the 'interference effect' in concurrent training?

Endurance training blunting strength gains when performed concurrently.

15
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Which type of training is NOT negatively affected by concurrent training?

Neither strength nor endurance gains are negatively affected.

16
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What does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?

The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord.

17
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What does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) include?

The PNS includes all nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.

18
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Which division of the PNS carries sensory information toward the CNS?

The afferent (sensory) division carries sensory information toward the CNS.

19
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Which division of the PNS carries motor commands away from the CNS to skeletal muscle?

The somatic motor division carries motor commands away from the CNS to skeletal muscle.

20
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What is the correct order of events in excitation-contraction coupling?

The correct order is: Action potential → ACh release → Ca²⁺ release → cross-bridge formation.

21
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What triggers the release of acetylcholine (ACh) from the motor neuron?

An action potential arriving at the axon terminal triggers the release of ACh.

22
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Where does acetylcholine bind to initiate depolarization of the muscle fiber?

ACh binds to motor end-plate receptors on the plasmalemma to initiate depolarization.

23
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After ACh binding, where does the action potential travel next?

The action potential travels down the T-tubules after ACh binding.

24
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What event directly triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

An action potential traveling down the T-tubules directly triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

25
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Calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to which protein?

Calcium binds to troponin.

26
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When calcium binds to troponin, what happens next?

Tropomyosin moves off the myosin-binding site on actin.

27
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What is formed when myosin binds to actin during contraction?

A cross-bridge is formed when myosin binds to actin during contraction.

28
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According to the sliding filament theory, during contraction:

Filaments slide past each other as myosin pulls actin toward the center.

29
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What condition must occur for muscle contraction to end?

Action potentials must stop arriving at the neuromuscular junction for muscle contraction to end.

30
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When action potentials stop, what happens to calcium?

Calcium is actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

31
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The reuptake of calcium into the SR requires:

The reuptake of calcium into the SR requires ATP (active transport).

32
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What happens to troponin and tropomyosin when calcium is removed from the sarcoplasm?

Troponin and tropomyosin return to resting conformation, covering the myosin-binding site.

33
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Which of the following would stop cross-bridges from forming?

Tropomyosin covering the myosin-binding site on actin would stop cross-bridges from forming.

34
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What is the gap between two neurons where communication occurs called?

The gap is called the synapse.

35
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The neuron that releases neurotransmitters is called the:

The neuron that releases neurotransmitters is called the presynaptic neuron.

36
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What is the primary neurotransmitter for motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle?

The primary neurotransmitter is acetylcholine (ACh).

37
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What is the primary neurotransmitter for most sympathetic neurons?

The primary neurotransmitter for most sympathetic neurons is norepinephrine.

38
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What does an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) cause?

An EPSP causes depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.

39
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What does an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) cause?

An IPSP causes hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.

40
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What does a motor unit consist of?

A motor unit consists of one alpha motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

41
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Which motor unit would produce the finest control (least force)?

A motor unit with a small neuron innervating <300 fibers would produce the finest control.

42
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According to the Size Principle, which motor units are recruited FIRST?

Type I motor units (smallest) are recruited first.

43
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According to the Size Principle, which motor units are recruited LAST during maximal force production?

Type IIx (largest) motor units are recruited last.

44
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What is a myelin sheath primarily composed of?

A myelin sheath is primarily composed of lipid-rich insulating layers from Schwann cells.

45
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What is the primary function of myelin sheaths?

The primary function of myelin sheaths is to increase the speed of nerve impulse conduction.

46
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What is the process by which an action potential 'jumps' from one Node of Ranvier to the next called?

The process is called saltatory conduction.

47
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Which type of nerve fiber has the FASTEST conduction velocity?

Large myelinated alpha motor nerves have the fastest conduction velocity.

48
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What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) of a neuron approximately?

The resting membrane potential (RMP) of a neuron is approximately -70 mV.

49
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At rest, the inside of a neuron is __________ relative to the outside.

At rest, the inside of a neuron is negatively charged relative to the outside.

50
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The resting membrane potential is primarily maintained by:

The resting membrane potential is primarily maintained by the sodium-potassium pump (3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in).

51
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What does the sodium-potassium pump transport?

The sodium-potassium pump transports 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in.

52
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At rest, the cell membrane is most permeable to which ion?

At rest, the cell membrane is most permeable to potassium (K⁺).

53
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What occurs during depolarization?

Depolarization occurs when the inside of a neuron becomes less negative (e.g., -60 mV).

54
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What is hyperpolarization?

Hyperpolarization occurs when the inside of a neuron becomes more negative, such as -80 mV.

55
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How do graded potentials differ from action potentials?

Graded potentials are localized and vary in strength, while action potentials are all-or-none events that travel long distances down the axon.

56
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How do action potentials differ from graded potentials?

Action potentials are all-or-none and travel the full length of the axon, while graded potentials decrease in strength over distance.

57
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What does the all-or-none principle state?

The all-or-none principle states that once threshold is reached, an action potential fires at maximum strength.

58
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What happens if a stimulus depolarizes the neuron to threshold?

A full-strength action potential occurs.

59
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What happens if a stimulus does NOT reach threshold?

No action potential occurs.

60
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What is the neuromuscular junction?

The neuromuscular junction is the site where an alpha motor neuron communicates with a muscle fiber.

61
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Where is acetylcholine released at the neuromuscular junction?

Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic axon terminal.

62
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Where does acetylcholine bind?

Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end-plate (plasmalemma of the muscle fiber).

63
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Why does muscle contraction require ATP?

Muscle contraction requires ATP for myosin head power stroke, detachment of myosin from actin, and calcium reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

64
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What provides the energy for the myosin head to pull actin during the power stroke?

The hydrolysis of ATP (ATP → ADP + Pᵢ) provides the energy.

65
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What allows myosin to detach from actin after the power stroke?

A new ATP molecule binding to myosin allows detachment.

66
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How is calcium pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

Calcium is pumped back into the SR using energy from ATP hydrolysis.

67
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What are muscle spindles sensitive to?

Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle length and the rate of change of length.

68
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Where are Golgi tendon organs located?

Golgi tendon organs are located in the tendon, proximal to the muscle-tendon attachment.

69
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What are Golgi tendon organs sensitive to?

Golgi tendon organs are sensitive to changes in muscle tension (force).

70
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What happens when a muscle spindle is stretched?

It triggers reflexive contraction of the stretched muscle to resist further stretching.

71
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What happens when a Golgi tendon organ detects excessive tension?

It inhibits the contracting (agonist) muscle and excites the antagonist.

72
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What is the force-velocity relationship for concentric contractions?

Maximal force decreases as contraction velocity increases.

73
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What is the force-velocity relationship for eccentric contractions?

Maximal force increases at higher speeds.

74
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Which type of contraction produces the greatest force at the same absolute velocity?

Eccentric contractions produce the greatest force.

75
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What connective tissue layer surrounds the entire muscle?

The epimysium surrounds the entire muscle.

76
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What connective tissue layer surrounds individual fascicles?

The perimysium surrounds individual fascicles.

77
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What connective tissue layer surrounds individual muscle fibers?

The endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers.

78
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What is the primary function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

The sarcoplasmic reticulum primarily functions to store and release calcium ions (Ca²⁺).

79
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What are T-tubules extensions of?

T-tubules are extensions of the plasmalemma (sarcolemma).

80
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What is the primary function of T-tubules?

The primary function of T-tubules is to carry the action potential deep into the muscle fiber.

81
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What role does actin play in muscle contraction?

Actin is part of the thin filament and interacts with myosin during contraction.

82
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What role does myosin play in muscle contraction?

Myosin is part of the thick filament and has globular heads that bind to actin and pull during contraction.

83
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What is the function of titan in muscle fibers?

Titan acts as a spring, stabilizes the sarcomere, and prevents overstretching.

84
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What protein covers the myosin-binding site on actin at rest?

Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding site on actin at rest.

85
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Which protein binds calcium during excitation-contraction coupling?

Troponin binds calcium during excitation-contraction coupling.

86
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What happens to tropomyosin when calcium binds to troponin?

Tropomyosin moves off the myosin-binding site on actin.

87
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What is the position of tropomyosin in a relaxed muscle?

In a relaxed muscle, tropomyosin is positioned to block the myosin-binding site on actin.

88
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What is beta-oxidation?

Beta-oxidation refers to the breakdown of free fatty acids into acetyl-CoA.

89
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Where does beta-oxidation occur?

Beta-oxidation occurs in the mitochondria.

90
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Does beta-oxidation require oxygen?

Yes, beta-oxidation requires oxygen (aerobic).

91
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Which energy system can sustain maximal intensity exercise for the LONGEST duration?

C) Oxidative system (aerobic)

92
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The ATP-PCr system can sustain maximal exercise for approximately:

A) 3-15 seconds

93
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The glycolytic (anaerobic) system can sustain high-intensity exercise for approximately:

B) 15 seconds to 2 minutes

94
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The oxidative (aerobic) system can sustain exercise for:

C) Hours

95
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Which energy system produces the MOST ATP per molecule of substrate?

C) Oxidative system (aerobic)

96
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Which energy system produces ATP at the FASTEST rate?

A) ATP-PCr system

97
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At rest, the typical fuel mixture is approximately:

C) 50% carbohydrate, 50% fat

98
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During low-intensity exercise, the body primarily uses:

A) More fat, some carbohydrate

99
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During high-intensity exercise, the preferred fuel source is:

B) Carbohydrate (glycogen/glucose)

100
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The major fuel source for the brain is:

B) Glucose