🩺Chapter 10- Nervous System

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125 Terms

1
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  1. Which body system communicates information rapidly by nerve impulses conducted from one body area to another?
    A. Endocrine system
    B. Nervous system
    C. Lymphatic system
    D. Respiratory system

B. Nervous system

2
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  1. Which system communicates more slowly by ductless glands secreting chemicals into the bloodstream?
    A. Digestive
    B. Immune
    C. Endocrine
    D. Nervous

C. Endocrine

3
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  1. Which two major divisions make up the nervous system as a whole?
    A. CNS and ANS
    B. PNS and ANS
    C. CNS and PNS
    D. Brain and cranial nerves

C. CNS and PNS

4
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  1. What structures are included in the central nervous system?
    A. Brain and spinal nerves
    B. Brain and spinal cord
    C. Spinal cord and cranial nerves
    D. Spinal nerves and ganglia

B. Brain and spinal cord

5
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  1. Sensory neurons carry impulses in which direction?
    A. From CNS to effectors
    B. From effectors to CNS
    C. From all parts of body to spinal cord and brain
    D. From spinal cord to muscles only

C. From all parts of body to spinal cord and brain

6
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  1. Motor neurons carry impulses:
    A. To the CNS
    B. Away from the CNS
    C. Only to glands
    D. Only to skeletal muscle

B. Away from the CNS

7
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  1. Interneurons conduct impulses mainly:
    A. From brain to glands
    B. From CNS to PNS
    C. Within the CNS between sensory and motor neurons
    D. From skin to spinal cord only

C. Within the CNS between sensory and motor neurons

8
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  1. A typical neuron’s main parts are the cell body, dendrites, and:
    A. Schwann cell
    B. Axon
    C. Myelin
    D. Node of Ranvier

B. Axon

9
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  1. Dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body, while axons carry impulses:
    A. Toward the cell body
    B. Away from the cell body
    C. Only across synapses
    D. Only in the spinal cord

B. Away from the cell body

10
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  1. The cells that support neurons but do not conduct impulses are collectively called:
    A. Neurofibrils
    B. Glia (neuroglia)
    C. Ganglia
    D. Nodes

B. Glia (neuroglia)

11
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  1. One key function of glia is to:
    A. Generate action potentials
    B. Hold functioning neurons together and protect them
    C. Produce cerebrospinal fluid
    D. Release neurotransmitters

B. Hold functioning neurons together and protect them

12
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  1. A common type of brain tumor arising from glia is called a(n):
    A. Neuroma
    B. Glioma
    C. Schwannoma
    D. Meningioma

B. Glioma

13
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  1. Astrocytes help form a protective two‑layer structure with blood vessels known as the:
    A. Myelin sheath
    B. Reticular formation
    C. Blood–brain barrier (BBB)
    D. Central canal

C. Blood–brain barrier (BBB)

14
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  1. Microglia function primarily as:
    A. Myelin producers in PNS
    B. Phagocytes that enlarge, move about, and eat microbes
    C. Neurons that transmit sensory input
    D. Cells that secrete CSF

B. Phagocytes that enlarge, move about, and eat microbes

15
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  1. Oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the:
    A. PNS
    B. CNS
    C. Autonomic ganglia
    D. Neuromuscular junction

B. CNS

16
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  1. In the PNS, the glial cells that form myelin sheaths around axons are:
    A. Astrocytes
    B. Oligodendrocytes
    C. Schwann cells
    D. Microglia

C. Schwann cells

17
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  1. The outer wrapped layer of a Schwann cell is called the:
    A. Node of Ranvier
    B. Neurilemma
    C. Endoneurium
    D. Epineurium

B. Neurilemma

18
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  1. Axons with myelin are called:
    A. Gray fibers
    B. Myelinated fibers
    C. Dendritic fibers
    D. Peripheral fibers

B. Myelinated fibers

19
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  1. Because oligodendrocytes lack neurilemma, regeneration of injured CNS axons is:
    A. More likely than in PNS
    B. Equal to PNS
    C. Less likely than in PNS
    D. Guaranteed after inflammation

C. Less likely than in PNS

20
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  1. Multiple sclerosis (MS) primarily involves:
    A. Destruction of Schwann cell neurilemma
    B. Demyelination in the CNS due to oligodendrocyte injury
    C. Excess acetylcholine in synapses
    D. Infection of astrocytes

B. Demyelination in the CNS due to oligodendrocyte injury

21
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  1. A nerve is a group of peripheral axons bundled together like cable strands, each axon surrounded by:
    A. Epineurium only
    B. Endoneurium
    C. Perineurium only
    D. Myelin only

B. Endoneurium

22
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  1. Groups of wrapped axons are called fascicles and are surrounded by the:
    A. Perineurium
    B. Epineurium
    C. Neurilemma
    D. Pia mater

A. Perineurium

23
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  1. The tough fibrous sheath covering the whole nerve is the:
    A. Endoneurium
    B. Epineurium
    C. Perineurium
    D. Arachnoid

B. Epineurium

24
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  1. The knee‑jerk (patellar) reflex is an example of a:
    A. Three‑neuron arc
    B. Two‑neuron reflex arc
    C. Voluntary pathway
    D. Cerebral reflex

B. Two‑neuron reflex arc

25
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  1. In a two‑neuron arc, the impulse pathway includes:
    A. Sensory neuron → interneuron → motor neuron
    B. Sensory neuron → motor neuron
    C. Motor neuron → sensory neuron
    D. Interneuron only

B. Sensory neuron → motor neuron

26
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  1. The simplest reflex starts in specialized parts of sensory neurons called:
    A. Ganglia
    B. Receptors
    C. Synapses
    D. Nodes

B. Receptors

27
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  1. A small group of sensory neuron cell bodies in the PNS located near the spinal cord is a:
    A. Dorsal root ganglion
    B. Ventral horn
    C. Sympathetic chain ganglion
    D. Nucleus

A. Dorsal root ganglion

28
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  1. The microscopic space between an axon terminal and dendrite is the:
    A. Node
    B. Cleft
    C. Synapse
    D. Tract

C. Synapse

29
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  1. The organ (muscle or gland) that puts nerve signals into effect is the:
    A. Effector
    B. Receptor
    C. Interneuron
    D. Synaptic knob

A. Effector

30
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  1. A nerve impulse (action potential) is a self‑propagating wave of electrical disturbance that travels along a neuron’s membrane and depends on:
    A. Constant neurotransmitter release along axon
    B. Sequential depolarization and repolarization of the membrane
    C. Only sodium efflux
    D. Only potassium influx

B. Sequential depolarization and repolarization of the membrane

31
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  1. At rest, a neuron membrane is polarized because:
    A. Inside is more positive than outside
    B. Outside has excess Na⁺; inside is more negative
    C. Inside has excess Na⁺
    D. There is equal charge inside and outside

B. Outside has excess Na⁺; inside is more negative

32
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  1. Opening sodium channels and Na⁺ rushing inward causes:
    A. Repolarization
    B. Depolarization
    C. Hyperpolarization
    D. Rest

B. Depolarization

33
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  1. Impulses travel faster in myelinated fibers by “jumping” node to node, a process called:
    A. Continuous conduction
    B. Saltatory conduction
    C. Diffusion
    D. Reverberation

B. Saltatory conduction

34
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  1. At a synapse, the presynaptic knob releases chemicals called:
    A. Neuromodulators
    B. Neurotransmitters
    C. Hormones
    D. Ions

B. Neurotransmitters

35
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  1. The space between synaptic knob and postsynaptic membrane is the:
    A. Synaptic cleft
    B. Axon hillock
    C. Neurolemma
    D. Central canal

A. Synaptic cleft

36
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  1. After binding receptors and triggering channels, neurotransmitter action is ended primarily by enzyme breakdown or:
    A. Myelination
    B. Reuptake into synaptic knobs
    C. Conversion to hormones
    D. Diffusion into CSF only

B. Reuptake into synaptic knobs

37
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  1. Acetylcholine (ACh) is released at some spinal cord synapses and at:
    A. Neuromuscular junctions
    B. Only brainstem nuclei
    C. Only sensory receptors
    D. Only glands

A. Neuromuscular junctions

38
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  1. Three well‑known amine neurotransmitters that impact sleep, mood, and motor function are NE, dopamine, and:
    A. Histamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. GABA
    D. Glycine

B. Serotonin

39
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  1. The blood–brain barrier formed by astrocytes and capillary walls allows water, oxygen, CO₂, and alcohol to pass but blocks many antibiotics; dopamine cannot cross, but its precursor can.
    A. L‑dopa
    B. ACh
    C. NE
    D. Serotonin

A. L‑dopa

40
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  1. SSRIs (e.g., fluoxetine) act by:
    A. Increasing ACh release
    B. Blocking serotonin reuptake
    C. Inhibiting dopamine synthesis
    D. Blocking NE receptors

B. Blocking serotonin reuptake

41
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  1. Endorphins/enkephalins are morphine‑like neurotransmitters that:
    A. Promote pain
    B. Inhibit pain conduction
    C. Have no role in pain pathways
    D. Cause seizures

B. Inhibit pain conduction

42
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  1. Nitric oxide (NO) diffuses directly across plasma membranes and is important in the male sexual response by:
    A. Inhibiting smooth muscle
    B. Stimulating skeletal muscle
    C. Dilating smooth muscle in penile vessels
    D. Blocking enzyme breakdown

C. Dilating smooth muscle in penile vessels

43
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  1. Parkinson disease results from deficiency of which neurotransmitter in certain brain regions?
    A. ACh
    B. Dopamine
    C. NE
    D. GABA

B. Dopamine

44
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  1. L‑dopa is used in PD because:
    A. It blocks dopamine reuptake
    B. Dopamine cannot cross the BBB, but L‑dopa can
    C. It inhibits serotonin breakdown
    D. It stimulates microglia

B. Dopamine cannot cross the BBB, but L‑dopa can

45
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  1. The brainstem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons, and:
    A. Midbrain
    B. Thalamus
    C. Hypothalamus
    D. Cerebellum

A. Midbrain

46
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  1. Vital reflex centers for heartbeat, respiration, and blood vessel diameter are chiefly located in the:
    A. Pons
    B. Midbrain
    C. Medulla oblongata
    D. Cerebellum

C. Medulla oblongata

47
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  1. The reticular formation blends bits of gray and white matter in the brainstem and helps regulate:
    A. Endocrine output
    B. Consciousness/alerting mechanisms
    C. CSF flow
    D. Voluntary movement only

B. Consciousness/alerting mechanisms

48
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  1. The cerebellum:
    A. Initiates emotions
    B. Produces smooth coordinated movements and helps maintain equilibrium/posture
    C. Controls hormone release
    D. Has no role in coordination

B. Produces smooth coordinated movements and helps maintain equilibrium/posture

49
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  1. Thin outer layer of cerebellar gray matter with folds increases surface area; the interior white matter branches as the:
    A. Corpus callosum
    B. Arbor vitae
    C. Basal nuclei
    D. Limbic tree

B. Arbor vitae

50
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  1. The diencephalon includes the hypothalamus, thalamus, and:
    A. Pineal gland
    B. Pituitary gland
    C. Basal nuclei
    D. Corpus callosum

A. Pineal gland

51
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  1. The hypothalamus helps control heartbeat, blood vessel diameter, stomach/intestinal contractions, water balance via ADH, temperature, appetite, emotions, and sleep cycles—linking the nervous and:
    A. Skeletal system
    B. Endocrine system
    C. Integumentary system
    D. Lymphatic system

B. Endocrine system

52
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  1. The thalamus functions include all EXCEPT:
    A. Relaying sensory information to cortex
    B. Associating sensations with emotions
    C. Regulating consciousness
    D. Secreting melatonin

D. Secreting melatonin

53
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  1. The pineal gland receives light information and adjusts output of the “timekeeping” hormone:
    A. Cortisol
    B. Melatonin
    C. Insulin
    D. Thyroxine

B. Melatonin

54
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  1. The cerebrum is the largest brain part; ridges are gyri and grooves are:
    A. Tracts
    B. Sulci
    C. Peduncles
    D. Fissures only

B. Sulci

55
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  1. The longitudinal fissure divides the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres connected by the:
    A. Internal capsule
    B. Corpus callosum
    C. Caudate nucleus
    D. Fornix

B. Corpus callosum

56
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  1. Major cerebral functions include consciousness, thinking, memory, sensations, emotions, and:
    A. Endocrine secretion
    B. Willed (voluntary) movements
    C. Peristalsis
    D. Reflex arcs

B. Willed (voluntary) movements

57
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  1. Concussion is a type of TBI often causing temporary chemical brain changes with symptoms that may include headache, nausea, light sensitivity, mood or sleep change, and:
    A. Permanent paralysis
    B. Changes in thinking/concentration
    C. Spinal cord transection
    D. Loss of CSF

B. Changes in thinking/concentration

58
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  1. Stroke (CVA) results from hemorrhage or cessation of blood flow; because many motor tracts cross in the brainstem, motor deficits often appear on the body side:
    A. Same as lesion
    B. Opposite the lesion
    C. Bilaterally always
    D. Only in face

B. Opposite the lesion

59
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  1. Cerebral palsy is a nonprogressive condition of variable muscle control often with spastic paralysis, which means:
    A. Loss of sensation only
    B. Involuntary muscle contractions
    C. Denervation atrophy only
    D. Flaccid paralysis of all limbs always

B. Involuntary muscle contractions

60
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  1. Alzheimer disease shows characteristic cortical lesions; commonly treated to slow progression with drugs such as donepezil and:
    A. Memantine
    B. L‑dopa
    C. Penicillin
    D. Ketamine

A. Memantine

61
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  1. Seizure disorders (epilepsy) involve sudden bursts of atypical neuronal activity; diagnosis is supported by an:
    A. MRI
    B. EEG showing abnormal brain waves
    C. CSF culture
    D. ACh level

B. EEG showing abnormal brain waves

62
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  1. The spinal cord extends from the occipital bone to the bottom of the first lumbar vertebra (L1) and ends in the tapered:
    A. Filum terminale
    B. Conus medullaris
    C. Cauda equina
    D. Dorsal horn

B. Conus medullaris

63
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  1. Nerve roots below the conus medullaris form the:
    A. Arbor vitae
    B. Cauda equina
    C. Ventral horn
    D. Reticular formation

B. Cauda equina

64
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  1. The H‑shaped gray matter in the spinal cord consists mainly of:
    A. Myelinated axons
    B. Dendrites and neuron cell bodies
    C. CSF
    D. Microglia only

B. Dendrites and neuron cell bodies

65
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  1. Ascending tracts conduct impulses ; descending tracts conduct impulses .
    A. Down to the cord; up to brain
    B. Up to the brain; down from brain
    C. Within gray matter; within white only
    D. Only between ganglia; only to cortex

B. Up to the brain; down from brain

66
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  1. Spinal cord injuries that sever the cord cause loss of sensation (anesthesia) and loss of voluntary movement (paralysis) below the injury because impulses can no longer:
    A. Be generated
    B. Travel past the cut area
    C. Cross synapses
    D. Reach interneurons

B. Travel past the cut area

67
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  1. The three meninges (outer to inner) are:
    A. Pia, arachnoid, dura
    B. Arachnoid, dura, pia
    C. Dura, arachnoid, pia
    D. Dura, pia, arachnoid

C. Dura, arachnoid, pia

68
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  1. Inflammation of the meninges is called:
    A. Encephalitis
    B. Meningitis
    C. Myelitis
    D. Neuritis

B. Meningitis

69
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  1. CSF fills the subarachnoid space and brain ventricles; it is produced by filtration from blood through capillary networks called the:
    A. Choroid plexus
    B. Basal nuclei
    C. Dorsal root ganglion
    D. Pia plexus

A. Choroid plexus

70
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  1. CSF flows from lateral ventricles → third ventricle → cerebral aqueduct → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space and central canal, then is returned to the:
    A. Lymph
    B. Blood
    C. Synapses
    D. Gray matter

B. Blood

71
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  1. Hydrocephalus can result from blockage of CSF pathways; treatment may include placement of a:
    A. Shunt to drain CSF
    B. Plate in skull
    C. Cortical stimulator
    D. Pituitary implant

A. Shunt to drain CSF

72
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  1. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. The nerve that conducts impulses between medulla and structures in neck, thorax, and abdomen is:
    A. CN V
    B. CN VII
    C. CN X (vagus)
    D. CN XII

C. CN X (vagus)

73
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  1. The optic nerve is cranial nerve number:
    A. I
    B. II
    C. III
    D. IV

B. II

74
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  1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) primarily controls:
    A. Facial expression
    B. Eye movements
    C. Hearing
    D. Tongue movement

B. Eye movements

75
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  1. (SATA) Which cranial nerves are sensory for special senses?
    A. I Olfactory
    B. II Optic
    C. VIII Vestibulocochlear
    D. XI Accessory
    E. XII Hypoglossal

A. I Olfactory

76
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  1. Spinal nerves emerge as 31 pairs; how many are cervical?
    A. 7
    B. 8
    C. 12
    D. 5

B. 8

77
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  1. Networks of “braided” spinal nerve branches are called:
    A. Tracts
    B. Plexuses
    C. Columns
    D. Ganglia

B. Plexuses

78
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  1. A dermatome is:
    A. A motor unit of the skin
    B. Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve
    C. A cranial nerve branch
    D. A CSF chamber

B. Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

79
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  1. Painful inflammation of a spinal nerve branch in the thigh (often sciatic nerve) is called:
    A. Neuritis (sciatica)
    B. Neuralgia
    C. Myalgia
    D. Plexitis

A. Neuritis (sciatica)

80
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  1. A lumbar puncture (spinal tap) withdraws CSF from the subarachnoid space, typically at the level of:
    A. T4
    B. L1
    C. L3–L4 area, below spinal cord end
    D. S1

C. L3–L4 area, below spinal cord end

81
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  1. Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) involves stabbing facial pain due to the cranial nerve.
    A. Fifth
    B. Seventh
    C. Ninth
    D. Tenth

A. Fifth

82
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  1. Bell palsy involves paralysis of facial features due to dysfunction of which nerve?
    A. CN V
    B. CN VII
    C. CN IX
    D. CN XII

B. CN VII

83
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  1. Herpes zoster (shingles) typically erupts along a single:
    A. Nerve plexus
    B. Dermatome
    C. Arterial branch
    D. Cranial nucleus

B. Dermatome

84
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  1. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) consists of motor neurons to which effectors?
    A. Skeletal muscle only
    B. Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue
    C. Bone and cartilage
    D. Skin only

B. Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue

85
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  1. Motor neurons that control voluntary skeletal muscles are part of the:
    A. ANS
    B. SNS (somatic nervous system)
    C. PNS only
    D. Reflex arc only

B. SNS (somatic nervous system)

86
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  1. The two main divisions of the ANS are:
    A. Somatic and autonomic
    B. Sympathetic and parasympathetic
    C. Cranial and spinal
    D. Central and peripheral

B. Sympathetic and parasympathetic

87
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  1. Preganglionic autonomic neuron cell bodies lie in the gray matter of brainstem or spinal cord; their axons synapse with:
    A. Motor end plates
    B. Postganglionic neurons in ganglia
    C. Skeletal muscle cells
    D. Sensory receptors

B. Postganglionic neurons in ganglia

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  1. Sympathetic division preganglionic neurons arise from the thoracic and upper lumbar cord; this outflow is called:
    A. Craniosacral
    B. Thoracolumbar
    C. Cervicothoracic
    D. Lumbosacral

B. Thoracolumbar

89
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  1. Sympathetic ganglia arranged like two chains along the vertebral column are the:
    A. Dorsal root ganglia
    B. Sympathetic chain ganglia
    C. Collateral ganglia only
    D. Parasympathetic ganglia

B. Sympathetic chain ganglia

90
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  1. The sympathetic division functions as the body’s emergency system producing a:
    A. Rest‑and‑digest response
    B. Fight‑or‑flight response
    C. Freeze‑and‑faint response
    D. Feed‑and‑breed response

B. Fight‑or‑flight response

91
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  1. (SATA) Typical sympathetic effects include:
    A. Dilated bronchioles
    B. Increased heart rate
    C. Increased peristalsis
    D. Goose pimples
    E. Increased sweat secretion

A. Dilated bronchioles
B. Increased heart rate
D. Goose pimples
E. Increased sweat secretion

92
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  1. Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate in brainstem and sacral cord; this is called:
    A. Craniosacral outflow
    B. Thoracolumbar outflow
    C. Reticulospinal outflow
    D. Corticospinal outflow

A. Craniosacral outflow

93
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  1. Because many parasympathetic ganglia are near or within target organs, parasympathetic effects are often:
    A. Widespread
    B. Longer lasting
    C. Focused on a single organ
    D. Always inhibitory

C. Focused on a single organ

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  1. The parasympathetic division generally counterbalances sympathetic function by:
    A. Speeding the heart
    B. Slowing the heart and increasing digestive activity
    C. Constricting bronchioles
    D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

95
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  1. All preganglionic axons (sympathetic and parasympathetic) release:
    A. ACh
    B. NE
    C. Epinephrine
    D. Dopamine

A. ACh

96
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  1. Parasympathetic postganglionic axons release:
    A. NE
    B. ACh
    C. Epinephrine
    D. Dopamine

B. ACh

97
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  1. Sympathetic postganglionic axons are mostly adrenergic and release:
    A. ACh
    B. NE
    C. GABA
    D. Serotonin

B. NE

98
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  1. The actual heart rate at any moment reflects the ratio of opposing autonomic influences mediated by which two neurotransmitters?
    A. ACh and serotonin
    B. NE and ACh
    C. Dopamine and ACh
    D. NE and GABA

B. NE and ACh

99
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  1. Higher centers influencing ANS activity include the hypothalamus and parts of the cerebrum called the:
    A. Basal nuclei
    B. Limbic system (emotional brain)
    C. Occipital cortex
    D. Cerebellar cortex

B. Limbic system (emotional brain)

100
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  1. (SATA) Stress‑induced disease associated with chronic sympathetic activation can lead to:
    A. Hypertension
    B. Digestive problems such as colitis or ulcers
    C. Reduced resistance to infection
    D. Increased cancer spread via NE effects
    E. Enhanced immune function

A. Hypertension
B. Digestive problems such as colitis or ulcers
C. Reduced resistance to infection
D. Increased cancer spread via NE effects