3.0 Disease Prevention, Infection Control and waste Management Procedures

1. Ethics deals with

a. moral discipline.

b. mostly absolutes of right and wrong with few gray areas.

c. legal issues.

d. issues of little importance to dental healthcare, because ethical principles are well defined by the courts.

A

2. A behavior can be unethical and still be legal, but it cannot be illegal and still be

a. ethical.

b. justifiable.

c. rational

d. constructive

a

3. Which is the most basic element in morality?

a. Autonomy

b. Nonmaleficence

c. Beneficence

d. Veracity

B

4. The principal of justice is defined as

a. treating people fairly and giving them what they deserve.

b. acting for the benefit of the patient.

c. rules or principles that govern proper conduct.

d. self-determination.

A

5. The American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA) Principles of Ethics

a. was established by the federal government.

b. is a set of laws.

c. serves as a method of self-regulation within the profession.

d. was created by the Aristotle, the Greek philosopher.

c

6. An ethical dilemma occurs when

a. a patient can be hurt by the decision.

b. two ethical principles are in conflict.

c. a patient files a lawsuit.

d. an employee performs an illegal act.

b

7. Which of the following is the last step in solving an ethical dilemma?

a. Choose a course of action.

b. Rank the alternatives.

c. Identify the alternatives.

d. Determine the professional implications.

A

8. If a dental assistant faces a situation in which the dentist's or employer's conduct violates ethical standards, the dental assistant is

a.legally responsible for the errors of the employer 

b. legally obligated to report questionable actions. 

C. legally obligated to attempt to alter the circumstances

D.not legally obligated to attempt to alter the circumstances.

d

9.The philosophy that all patients should receive the same quality of dental care is an example of

a.autonomy 

b. beneficence.

c.justice 

d.veracity

c

10. Incomplete information, such as omission of information about a less expensive option for treatment,

is a violation of which of the following ethical principles?

a. Veracity

b. Nonmaleficence

c. Beneficence

d. Autonomy

A

11. Reassuring a child that a treatment will not hurt, when in fact it may hurt, is an)

a. example of nonmaleficence.

b. example of beneficence.

c. violation of the ethical principle of veracity.

d. betrayal of confidentiality.

c

12. The American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA) Principles of Ethics are

a. laws.

b. the same as the American Dental Association (ADA) Code of Ethics.

c. useful for discussing philosophical differences but are not applicable to everyday life.

d. voluntary standards

d

13. If a dentist performs an unnecessary procedure such as mutilate a tooth at the request of the patient, the dentist is acting

a. ethically under the principle of patient autonomy.

b. unethically under the principle of patient autonomy.

c. ethically under the principle of nonmaleficence (do no harm).

d. unethically under the principle of nonmaleficence (do no harm).

d

14. Which of the following is true regarding membership in the American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA)?

a. Membership is an ethical decision.

b. It is necessary before taking the Dental Assisting National Board (DANB).

c. It is required in order to be a dental assistant.

d. Joining the ADAA is unnecessary.

a

15. Which of the following refers to a person's freedom to think, judge, and act independently without undue influence?

a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Nonmaleficence

d. Veracity

a

16. Mentioning that a celebrity patient was in the dental office earlier in the day while talking with a

friend at lunch at a restaurant is

a. permissible.

b. a breach of confidentiality.

c. a great way to spark a conversation.

d. commended.

b

17. State dental practice act regulations are interpreted by the

a. individual dentist, hygienist, or assistant.

b. state board of dentistry.

c. dental association of each state.

d. dental school in each state.

b

18. Which of the following organizations issues the license for a dentist to practice dentistry?

a. State Board of Dentistry

b. State Dental Association

C. American Dental Association

d. School from which the dentist graduated

a

19.________states that an employer is responsible for any harm caused by the actions of his or

her employee while that employee is carrying out the employer's business.

a. Direct supervision

b.Expanded functions

c. Respondeat superior

d. Res gestae

c

20. Direct supervision means that the dentist

a. examines the patient before delegating the procedure and again when the procedure is complete.

b. examines the patient before delegating the procedure, but not when the procedure is complete.

examines the patient only when the procedure is complete.

c.examines the patient only when the procedure is complete

d.does not examine the patient.

a

21. The concept of duty of care, or standard of care, is a

a. law that all dentists must follow.

b. law that provides specific steps that a dentist must follow.

c. legal concept that provides general boundaries.

d. black-and-white rule

c

22. Which of the following is the first of the "four Ds" that must be present for a malpractice suit against a dentist to be successful?

a. Damages

b. Dereliction

c. Duty of care 

d. Direct cause

c

23. Failure to perform an act that a reasonable and prudent professional would perform is called

a. endangerment.

b. trauma.

c. commission.

d. omission

d

24. Which of the following is considered the best defense against a malpractice lawsuit?

a. Good dental assistants and dental records

b. Prevention and good communication with the patient 

C.A treatment plan and good billing practices

d.A good dentist and an informed consent

b

25. Which of the following doctrines would be invoked in a situation where a dentist extracted the wrong tooth?

a. Respondeat superior

b. Res ipsa loquitur

C.Res gestae

d. Direct cause

b

26. Which of the following is true of the concept of informed patient consent?

a. It means that the dentist informs the patient of the preferred treatment option.

b. It means that the dentist has written documentation of the patient's consent and understanding of the procedure.

c. It means that the patient has chosen to enter the dental office of his or her own free will and was not coerced.

d.It means that the dentist must give the patient enough information about his or her condition and all available treatment options.

d

27. Consent for treatment of a minor child must be given by the

a. caretaker.

b. parent or legal guardian.

c. department of social services.

d. friend of the court.

b

28. Informed consent forms

a. are an alternative to face-to-face discussion between the dentist and the patient.

b. work to reduce the amount of time required to answer all of the patient's questions and concerns.

c. must be chosen from commercial sources; development of a personal form is prohibited

d. greatly increase the dentist's chance of defense against allegations from a patient that he or she was not fully informed about a procedure

d

29. A dentist usually refers a patient when

a. he or she does not want to treat the patient.

b. the case is unusual and conditions are beyond the dentist's scope of expertise.

c.the patient has early adult periodontitis.

d. the patient does not have dental insurance benefits

b

30. ______ is (are) included in the patient record/dental chart.

a.Examination records, radiographs, laboratory prescriptions and correspondence

b. Examination records, radiographs, and laboratory prescriptions, but not correspondence

c. Examination records, radiographs, and correspondence, but not laboratory prescriptions

d. Examination records, radiographs, but neither correspondence nor laboratory prescriptions

a

31. Which of the following is the correct way for a dental assistant to correct a chart entry?

a. Use ink to write over the incorrect entry.

b. Get a new, blank history form and discard the one with the correct entry.

c.Use White-Out or other correction fluid to cover up the old entry.

d. Draw a single line through the original entry so that it can still be read.

d

32.Immunity is granted from criminal or civil liability for reporting abuse as required in states that legally

the reporting of child, spousal, or elder abuse.

a. mandate

b. permit

C.allow

d. sanction

a

33. Which of the following is an offense that may result in a variety of penalties, including fines, loss or suspension of the license to practice dentistry, mandatory continuing education, counseling, or community service?

a. Felony

b. Malpractice

c. Misdemeanor

d. Infraction

c

34. Which of the following categories of civil law is established through the written word or by a verbal agreement?

a. Expressed contract

b. Implied contract

c. Administrative

d. Tort

a

35.Which of the following is able to provide an expressed contract for emergency treatment of a

16-year-old child who broke a tooth in the neighbor's driveway?

a. The neighbor

b. The child

c. The child's parent

d. 16-year-old brother of the child

c

36.Regulations for dental assistants a, vary greatly from state to state.

a.vary greatly from state to state

b. are established by the federal government.

c. were created by the American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA). 

d.are determined by the employer dentist according to the doctrine of respondeat superior

a

37. Which of the following forms of licensure allows a dentist who is licensed in one state a license to

practice in another state without further examination or requirements?

a. Licensure by credential

b. Reciprocity

c. Limited license

d. Probationary license

b

38. Which of the following is true of direct but not general supervision?

a. The dentist must authorize the specific procedures to be performed.

b. The procedures must be performed by a legally qualified dental auxiliary.

c. The dentist must examine the patient before and after the treatment.

d. The dentist must examine the patient once during treatment

c

39. What must a dentist do to avoid a patient claim of abandonment?

a. Prove that the patient did not follow instructions.

b. Show that the patient failed to keep appointments.

c. Send a notification of termination.

d. Show the patient failed to pay a bill

c

40.Which of the following is legally necessary to dismiss a patient from a dental practice?

a. Written notice of termination

b. Forwarding the original patient record to the subsequent dentist

c. A signed release form by the patient and the dentist

d. A hold-harmless clause in a written contract

a

41. Abandonment could be charged if the dentist 

a.prepares a tooth for a crown and then does not deliver and cement the crown. 

b.makes arrangements for another dentist to provide patient care in his or her absence.

c.goes on a last-minute vacation and forwards his calls to an answering service.

d. decides to move his practice to another state in 90 days

a

42. Legal problems with patients are best avoided by maintaining -

with all patients.

a. extended office hours

b. efficient staff

c. good rapport and open communication

d. good records

c

43. Which is true of informed refusal?

a. A patient may consent to substandard care through informed refusal.

b. The dentist must inform the patient about possible consequences.

c. The patient has a right to refuse treatment according to the principle of autonomy and nothing needs to be done.

d. Informed refusal is necessary for major procedures such as extractions and root canals, and it not necessary for routine professional care

b

44. When parents live separately, the child's personal information form should indicate which parent

a. is the custodial parent.

b. will be bringing the child to the next dental appointment.

c. is the natural birth parent of the child or adoptive parent if that is the situation. 

d.initiated the separation

a

45. Who should make a guarantee about the outcome of dental treatment?

a. Dentist

b. Dental assistant

c. Business office staff

d. No one

d

46. Many states identify dental professionals as

of suspected cases of child abuse.

a. the frontline of identification

b. mandated reporters excessively overeager

d.injudicious

b

47. About 75% of child abuse injuries involve the

a. hands and arms.

b. legs and feet.

c. head, neck, and mouth area.

d. abdomen and lower back.

c

48. Which of the following protects the confidentiality of patient health information?

a. EPA

b. OSHA

C. HIPAA

d. OSAP

c

49. It is important for the dental assistant to have a foundation in microbiology to understand the nature of pathogens and to

a. treat viral diseases, such as human immunodeficiency virus.

b. treat bacterial diseases, such as tuberculosis.

c. know how to prevent disease transmission in the dental office.

d. cure diseases

c

50. Which of the following is the correct term used to describe microorganisms that produce disease in humans?

a. Pandemic

b. Pathogen

c. Percutaneous

d. Germ

b

51. Which is the smallest of the major groups of microorganisms?

a. Bacteria

b. Protozoa

C.Fungi

d. Viruses

d

52.Which of the following is the most resistant form of life known?

a. Virulent fungus

b. Capsule

c.spore

d. Anaerobe

c

53. Which of the following is a group of one-celled organisms that lack chlorophyll?

a. Algae

b. Protozoa

c. Fungi

d. Rickettsiae

c

54. Oral candidiasis is an opportunistic infection caused by

a. fungi.

b. bacteria.

c. protozoa.

d. rickettsiae.

a

55.What is the name of a new and separate class of disease-producing molecules that are composed of proteins that lack genetic material nucleic acids (DNA or RNA)?

a. Prions

b. Scrapie

c. DNARNA

d. Algae

a

56. What types of microorganisms are known as obligate intracellular parasites, meaning that they can live and multiply only inside an appropriate host cell?

a. Bacteria

b. Viruses

c. Protozoa

d. Algae

e. Fungi

b

57. HIV infects cells known as CD4 cells, and hepatitis virus infects only liver cells because of

a. diversity.

b. latency.

c. specificity.

d. singularity.

c

58.General antibiotics are ineffective in preventing or curtailing

 a.bacteria, 

b.spores.

C.anaerobes.

d. viral infections,

d

59. Chemicals such as chlorine (bleach), iodine, phenol, and formaldehyde are 

a. unable to destroy viruses on surfaces coming into contact with infected patients.

b. unable to destroy viruses on objects coming into contact with infected patients.

C.able to destroy viruses in the external environment.

d. used internally as effective antiviral medications

c

60. Which of the following is not a dental sign of second-stage infectious syphilis?

a. Split papules at the corners of the mouth

b. Geographic tongue

c. Grayish-white, moist, "mucous patches" on the tongue, roof of the mouth, tonsils, or inner surfaces of the lips

d. Generalized measles-type rash, poxlike pustules, oozing sores, and hair falling from the scalp

b

61.Dental assistants should be immunized against which of the following viral infections?

a. Hepatitis B

b. Hepatitis C C.

Tetanus

d. Tuberculosis

a

62. Kill time for which of the following infectious agents is the benchmark for the effectiveness of a surface disinfectant?

a. West Nile virus

b. Tetanus

c. Tuberculosis 

d.Syphilis

c

63.______ is the study of microorganisms.

a.Anatomy

b. Microbiology

C.Antiseptic

d. Disinfectant

b

64. Which of the following types of microorganisms do not produce human illness?

a. Virus

b. Nonpathogenic

c. Pasteurized 

d.Germ

b

65.Which of the following was a French chemist who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life?

a. Louis Pasteur

b. Aristotle

c. Robert Koch

d. Joseph Lister

a

66. Bacteria that do require oxygen in order to grow are called

a. anaerobes,

b. aerobes.

c. spores.

d. Gram-negative

b

67. Which of the following types of bacteria normally live in the intestinal tract of insects?

a. Tuberculosis

b. Tetanus

c. Rickettsiaed.

d. Actinomyces israelii

c

68. A provirus is found when a virus establishes a(n).

state in a host cell.

a. latent

b. specific

c. virulent

d. active

a

69. A viral disease cannot be transmitted through

a. direct contact and blood transfusion.

b. insects and contaminated food or water.

c. coughing or sneezing.

d. radiation.

d

70. Which herpes simplex virus type causes Burkitt lymphoma?

a. Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV 1)

b. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV 2)

c. Herpes varicella-zoster virus (HZV)

d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV

d

71. Who is most at risk from the Zika virus?

a. An elderly man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

b. A young woman of childbearing age

c. An adolescent boy with asthma

d. A middle-aged man with a history of angina

b

72. What is the reason that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has become a public

health concern?

a. It is a new sexually transmitted infection (STI) that previously went unrecognized

b. It will cause birth defects.

c. It causes an infection that is resistant to some antibiotics such as penicillin.

d. It causes tuberculosis.

c

73. Which of the following diseases is commonly known as lockjaw?

a. Legionnaires' disease

b. Syphilis

c. Tuberculosis

d. Tetanus

d

74. Which of the following diseases can be 

prevented by immunization?

a. Hepatitis B

b. Hepatitis C

c. Hepatitis D

d. Hepatitis E

a

75. Which of the following diseases is spread through sexual contact with an infected person and by needle sharing among drug users?

a. Legionnaires' disease

b. HIN

c. Tetanus

d. Tuberculosis

b

76. Which disease is caused by a spore-forming bacillus found in soil?

a. HIV

b. Tuberculosis

c. Tetanus

d. Syphilis

c

77. Which chemicals are capable of destroying viruses in an external environment?

a. Chlorine (bleach)

b. Alcohol

c. Soap

d. Ammonia

a

78. Which is the best source of information regarding delivery of dental care during the pandemic related to COVID-19?

a. The nightly news report on television

b. Friends and word of mouth

c. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) guidelines

d. Information from the newspaper

c

79. Which of the following is the first link in the chain of infection?

a. Infectious agent

b. Portal of entry

c. Immunity

d. Occupational exposure

a

80. Which of the following terms is used to describe disease-causing organisms?

a. Virulence

b. Bioburden

c. Pathogens

d. Infectious disease

c

81. An infection that has a rapid onset or a short course is a(n)

infection.

a. chronic

b. latent

C.acute

d.opportunistic

c

82. A(n) _____ injury is through the skin, such as a needle stick.

a.percutaneous

b. permucosal

c. infectious

d. dermatitis

a

83. Mistlike aerosols are

a. visible to the naked eye.

b. created by the prophy cup during dental procedures.

c. not capable of transmitting respiratory infections.

d. capable of remaining airborne for extended periods and can be inhaled.

d

 84. Which of the following types of pathogens are carried in the blood and body fluids of infected

individuals and that can be transmitted to others?

a. Blood-borne

b. Parenteral

c. Virulent

d. Acquired

a

85. Immunity allows the body to resist disease and prevents foreign bodies from causing

a susceptibility.

b. immunity.

c. infection.

d. heredity

c

86. When immunity is obtained by recovery from a disease, it is called

immunity.

a. active naturally acquired

b. active artificially acquired

c. passive naturally acquired

d. passive artificially acquired

a

87. The role of _______ is to issue specific standards to protect the health of employees in the United

States.

a. HIPAA

b. CDC

c. OSHA

d. FDA

c

88. The law designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to blood-borne disease-causing organisms such as HBV, HIV, and HCV is

a. the OSHA Blood-Borne Pathogens (BBP) Standard

b. Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings.

c. the OSHA Health and Safety Standards.

d. the exposure control plan.

a

89. Which of the following is the best method for washing hands that are not visibly soiled?

a. Bar soap and water

b. Liquid soap and water

c. Alcohol-based hand rub

d. Antimicrobial-saturated wipe

c

90. According to the CDC,______ Precautions represent a standard of care designed to protect

healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluid, excretion, or secretion.

a. Standard

b. Universal

c. Nationwide

d. Uniform

a

91. The CDC term Standard Precautions applies to contact with which of the following?

a. Perspiration

b. All body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, but only if they contain blood

c. All body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, regardless of whether they contain blood

d. Intact skin

c

92. Who should be notified first of an exposure incident after initial first aid is provided?

a. Employer

b. Employee's physician

c. Source patient

d. Workers' compensation provider

a

93. Which of the following is the first procedural step after an exposure incident?

a. Contact the source patient.

b. Stop operations immediately.

c. Remove your gloves.

d. Wash your hands thoroughly

b

94. Protective clothing should have

a. short sleeves and a low neckline.

b. short sleeves and a high neckline.

c. long sleeves and a low neckline.

d. long sleeves and a high neckline

d

95. Which of the following is the correct sequence for handwashing and gloving?

a. Wash your hands before you put on gloves, but not after you remove gloves.

b. Wash your hands before you put on gloves and immediately after you remove gloves.

c. Wash your hands only after you remove gloves.

d. You do not need to wash your hands if you wear gloves.

b

96. Which of the following statements about reducing microbial flora is true?

a. Alcohol-based hand rubs are more effective at reducing microbial flora than plain soap or antimicrobial handwashes.

b. Plain soap or antimicrobial handwashes are more effective at reducing microbial flora than alcohol-based hand rubs.

c. Alcohol-based hand rubs, antimicrobial handwashes, and plain soap are equally effective at reducing microbial flora.

d. Plain soap is best for reducing microbial flora.

a

 97. The BBP Standard requires use of protective eyewear

a. with front but not side protection.

b. with front and side protection (solid side shields) during exposure-prone procedures.

c. including contact lenses, which are considered to be protective.

d. along  with a face shield

b

98. Which of the following is the most common type of latex allergy?

a. Type I allergic reaction

B. Type II allergic reactions

C. Type IV allergic reactions

D. Irritant dermatitis

c

99. CDC guidelines and the OSHA Bllod-borne Pathogen Standard consider saliva to be which of the following?

a. A potentially infectious body fluid

b. A noninfectious body fluid

c. An infectious waste

d. A contaminated waste

a

100. Which of the following is correct regarding use of the low-volume saliva ejector during a dental procedure?

a. Plastic saliva ejectors can be reused if they are disinfected between patients.

b. It is preferable to have the patient use a cuspidor instead of a low-volume saliva ejector.

c. Do not have the patient close their lips around the tip of the saliva ejector. 

D. Low-volume saliva ejectors have been replaced with high-volume evacuators (HVE) tips and are not longer available.

c