Micro exam 3

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Last updated 12:54 AM on 4/17/25
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43 Terms

1
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What are narrow-spectrum antibiotics designed to target?

Specific types of bacteria, either gram-positive or gram-negative.

2
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What is the definition of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

Antibiotics that affect a wide range of bacteria, including both gram-positive and gram-negative.

3
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What does selective toxicity mean in the context of antibiotics?

It refers to antibiotics being more harmful to bacteria than to human cells.

4
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What is the mechanism of action for bacitracin?

Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis and is used topically.

5
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How do beta-lactams work?

They inhibit cell wall synthesis by targeting penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs).

6
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What is penicillin?

A natural beta-lactam antibiotic that is only slightly modified in some forms.

7
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What makes cephalosporins distinct from penicillin?

Cephalosporins are modified beta-lactams that come in multiple generations with increasing gram-negative coverage.

8
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What are carbapenems known for?

Broad-spectrum synthetic antibiotics that are highly resistant to beta-lactamases.

9
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What type of bacteria do monobactams primarily target?

Gram-negative bacteria, and they have a single-ring structure.

10
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What is the function of cycloserine?

It inhibits formation of the bacterial cell wall by interfering with amino acid configuration.

11
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How does vancomycin affect bacterial cells?

It inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala bridge in NAM subunits.

12
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What is a key side effect of ethambutol?

Optic neuritis, which can affect color vision.

13
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What is isoniazid used for?

It blocks mycolic acid synthesis and is used against acid-fast bacteria like TB and leprosy.

14
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How do aminoglycosides cause bacterial death?

They cause misreading of mRNA, resulting in incorrect amino acids in protein synthesis.

15
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What does chloramphenicol inhibit?

It inhibits peptidyl transferase, preventing peptide bond formation.

16
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What is the action of oxazolidinones (e.g., Linezolid)?

They prevent assembly of the 70S ribosome by blocking 50S/30S subunit binding.

17
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What is the main function of macrolides like erythromycin?

They bind to the 50S subunit and prevent translocation along mRNA.

18
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What do tetracyclines block in bacterial cells?

They block tRNA binding to the A-site on the 30S subunit, preventing amino acid addition.

19
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What is the role of mupirocin?

It inhibits isoleucyl-tRNA synthetase, blocking isoleucine incorporation.

20
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How do sulfonamides affect bacteria?

They mimic PABA to block folic acid synthesis.

21
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What type of bacteria do fluoroquinolones inhibit?

They inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, preventing DNA replication.

22
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What effect do nitroimidazoles (e.g., Metronidazole) have on bacteria?

They produce free radicals in anaerobic bacteria, causing DNA damage.

23
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What is the main function of rifampin?

It inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, stopping transcription.

24
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What does the Latin term 'Vacca' refer to in the context of vaccines?

It refers to cow, originating from Edward Jenner’s cowpox/smallpox experiments.

25
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What is the primary purpose of a vaccine?

To introduce antigens to stimulate B and T cell memory without causing disease.

26
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What are live attenuated vaccines?

Weakened forms of pathogens that can replicate but do not cause illness.

27
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What are inactivated (killed) vaccines?

Entire pathogens killed that cannot replicate but still trigger immunity.

28
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What are subunit vaccines?

Vaccines that contain only specific parts (antigens) of a pathogen.

29
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What does 'conjugated vaccine' mean?

A vaccine that links polysaccharides to a protein to enhance immune response.

30
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What is a contraindication in vaccination terms?

A medical reason not to receive a vaccine or drug, such as allergy or immunosuppression.

31
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What is herd immunity?

When a large portion of a population is immune, it indirectly protects those who are not.

32
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What infection is caused by Candida albicans?

Thrush, yeast infections, and cutaneous/systemic infections.

33
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What is unique about Candida auris?

It is a multidrug-resistant fungus often acquired in hospitals.

34
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What does Claviceps purpurea produce?

Lysergic acid, a precursor to LSD, causing ergotism.

35
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What disease does Coccidioides immitis cause?

Valley Fever, a respiratory infection from airborne spores.

36
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What is another name for Sporothrix schenckii infections?

Rose gardener's disease, causing nodular skin lesions.

37
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What serious condition can Mucor spp. cause?

Mucormycosis, including rhino-cerebral infections.

38
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What are the types of cutaneous mycoses?

Dermatophytes infections like tinea capitis (scalp), tinea barbae (beard), and others.

39
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What does Toxoplasma gondii infect?

Found in cat feces and is dangerous during pregnancy.

40
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What is Naegleria fowleri commonly known as?

Brain-eating amoeba, found in warm freshwater.

41
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What are common symptoms of Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) infection?

Itchy anus, especially at night, common in children.

42
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What does Giardia lamblia cause?

Greasy diarrhea and flatulence, known as 'beaver fever.'

43
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How is Loa loa transmitted?

By a fly, migrating under the skin and across the eye.