(3)Study group Haem practical

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Last updated 7:01 PM on 7/1/26
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72 Terms

1
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What is the diagnosis when the peripheral blood film shows bite cells and Heinz bodies?

G6PD deficiency.

2
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What are bite cells?

Red blood cells that have lost part of their cytoplasm after splenic removal of Heinz bodies.

3
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What are blister cells?

RBCs with separation of haemoglobin from the cell membrane, seen in G6PD deficiency.

4
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Which inclusion bodies are characteristic of G6PD deficiency?

Heinz bodies.

5
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What is one differential diagnosis of bite cells?

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

6
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What is the cornerstone of treatment for G6PD deficiency?

Avoidance of oxidative triggers.

7
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What should be done immediately when oxidative haemolysis occurs in G6PD deficiency?

Stop the offending agent.

8
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What supportive measures are given during acute haemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

Hydration and oxygen therapy.

9
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When are blood transfusions indicated in G6PD deficiency?

Severe haemolysis.

10
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What infection-related management is important in G6PD deficiency?

Treat underlying infections promptly.

11
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What treatment is used for severe neonatal jaundice due to G6PD deficiency?

Exchange transfusion.

12
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Which vitamin supplement is recommended in chronic haemolysis due to G6PD deficiency?

Folic acid.

13
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Which antimalarial drug should be avoided in G6PD deficiency?

Primaquine.

14
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Which sulfonamide commonly precipitates haemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

Sulfamethoxazole.

15
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Which urinary analgesic should be avoided in G6PD deficiency?

Phenazopyridine.

16
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Which dye used in methaemoglobinaemia is contraindicated in G6PD deficiency?

Methylene blue.

17
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Which red cell shape is the hallmark of primary myelofibrosis?

Dacrocytes (tear-drop cells).

18
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What is a dacrocyte?

A tear-drop shaped red blood cell.

19
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What is the hallmark peripheral blood finding in primary myelofibrosis?

Leukoerythroblastic blood picture with dacrocytes.

20
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What immature myeloid cells are seen in primary myelofibrosis?

Myelocytes and metamyelocytes.

21
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Which immature erythroid cells circulate in primary myelofibrosis?

Nucleated red blood cells (normoblasts).

22
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What does anisopoikilocytosis mean?

Variation in red cell size and shape.

23
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What does polychromasia indicate?

Increased reticulocytes from stress erythropoiesis.

24
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Which platelet abnormality is seen in primary myelofibrosis?

Giant abnormal platelets.

25
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Which granulocytes may be increased in primary myelofibrosis?

Basophils and eosinophils.

26
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What does the presence of circulating blasts suggest in primary myelofibrosis?

Late-stage disease or leukemic transformation.

27
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What is the commonest haematological complication of primary myelofibrosis?

Progressive anaemia.

28
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What is the commonest organ enlargement in primary myelofibrosis?

Splenomegaly.

29
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Into which acute leukaemia can primary myelofibrosis transform?

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

30
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What is a "dry tap" during bone marrow aspiration?

Failure to aspirate marrow because of fibrosis.

31
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Which fibres are markedly increased in primary myelofibrosis?

Reticulin and collagen fibres.

32
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What is the diagnosis when there is marked thrombocytosis with giant platelets?

Essential thrombocythaemia (ET).

33
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What is the first-line cytoreductive drug for essential thrombocythaemia?

Hydroxyurea.

34
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Which drug specifically reduces platelet production in ET?

Anagrelide.

35
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Which antiplatelet drug is commonly prescribed in ET?

Low-dose aspirin.

36
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Which interferon is used in ET?

Interferon-alpha.

37
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What is the hallmark CBC finding in ET?

Marked thrombocytosis.

38
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Which platelet abnormality is characteristic of ET?

Giant platelets.

39
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Which bone marrow cell lineage is markedly increased in ET?

Megakaryocytes.

40
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Describe the nuclei of megakaryocytes in ET.

Hyperlobulated (staghorn-like).

41
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What is the commonest complication of ET?

Thrombosis.

42
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What paradoxical complication may occur despite high platelet counts in ET?

Haemorrhage.

43
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Which mutation is most common in ET?

JAK2 V617F mutation.

44
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Which two other mutations are associated with ET?

CALR and MPL mutations.

45
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What platelet count is required for the diagnosis of ET?

≥450 × 10⁹/L.

46
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Which imaging investigation assesses splenomegaly in ET?

Abdominal ultrasound.

47
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Which blood parasite is seen inside red blood cells as trophozoites?

Plasmodium species (malaria parasite).

48
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Which malaria species is identified in the slide?

Plasmodium falciparum.

49
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What is the diagnosis when sickle-shaped red cells are seen on the blood film?

Sickle cell disease.

50
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Which novel drug increases oxygen affinity of HbS?

Voxelotor.

51
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Which monoclonal antibody reduces vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell disease?

Crizanlizumab.

52
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What is the brand name of Voxelotor?

Oxbryta.

53
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What is the brand name of Crizanlizumab?

Adakveo.

54
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Define sickle cell anaemia.

An inherited haemoglobinopathy caused by homozygous HbS mutation resulting in sickling of RBCs during deoxygenation.

55
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Which amino acid substitution causes sickle cell disease?

Valine replaces glutamic acid at position 6 of the β-globin chain.

56
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On which chromosome is the β-globin gene located?

Chromosome 11.

57
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Which mutation causes sickle cell disease?

GAG → GTG point mutation.

58
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Name the Benin haplotype of sickle cell disease.

Benin haplotype.

59
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Name the Central African haplotype of sickle cell disease.

Bantu (Central African Republic) haplotype.

60
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Name another major sickle cell haplotype.

Senegal haplotype.

61
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Which sickle cell haplotype is common in India and the Arabian Peninsula?

Arab-Indian haplotype.

62
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Which sickle cell haplotype is found in Cameroon?

Cameroon haplotype.

63
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Which laboratory test uses sodium metabisulphite in sickle cell disease?

Sickling test.

64
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Which investigation is the gold standard for confirming sickle cell disease?

Haemoglobin electrophoresis or HPLC.

65
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What blood film finding suggests functional asplenia in sickle cell disease?

Howell–Jolly bodies.

66
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Which red cell morphology is characteristic of sickle cell disease?

Sickle cells.

67
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Which target-like red cells are commonly seen in sickle cell disease?

Target cells.

68
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What is the commonest painful complication of sickle cell disease?

Vaso-occlusive crisis.

69
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Which pulmonary emergency complicates sickle cell disease?

Acute chest syndrome.

70
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Which neurological complication is common in sickle cell disease?

Stroke.

71
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Which bone complication commonly affects the femoral head in sickle cell disease?

Avascular necrosis.

72
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Why are patients with sickle cell disease prone to infections?

Functional asplenia.