NPTE review questions.

Which area is the most susceptible to a pressure injury if the patient is prone?

Forehead

Which area is the most susceptible to a pressure injury if the patient is sitting?

Ischial tuberosities

Which area is the most susceptible to a pressure injury if the patient is sidelying?

Ears

Which area is the most susceptible to a pressure injury if the patient is supine?

Occipital region

What type of pressure injury is an area of non-blachable with erythema?

Stage 1 pressure injury.

What type of pressure injury is an area that cannot be confirmed due to obscured slough or eschar?

Unstageable pressure injury.

What type of pressure injury is an area of tissue loss with exposed muscle, tendons and ligaments?

Stage 4 pressure injury.

You inspect a patient’s ulcer with visable adipose and rolled edges with no visable bone or muscle exposed. What stage pressure injury is this?

Stage 3 pressure injury.

You inspect a patient’s ulcer down to an exposed dermis that is red and moist. What stage pressure injury is this?

Stage 2 pressure injury.

Using the red-yellow-black system, If a wound is red and moist, what should the goal be to handle the wound?

The goal is to protect the wound and maintain a moist healing environment.

Using the red-yellow-black system, If a wound is most with yellow slough, what should the goal be to handle the wound?

The goal is to clean the wound and remove the slough to promote healing.

Using the red-yellow-black system, If a wound is black with thick eschar, what should the goal be to handle the wound?

The goal is to debride the wound and remove the eschar to allow for healing.

This area of a burn is the area of maximum damage. In this zone, the direct effect of the heat has resulted in irreversible tissue necrosis what zone is it?

This zone is known as the zone of coagulation.

This area of a burn is the area is surrounding the Zone of Stasis. Inflammatory mediators such as histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins and bradykinin are produced in this zone. These mediators affect vascular integrity and thereby make the blood vessels more permeable, leading to edema. The tissues of this area eventually return to normal. What zone is this?

This zone is known as the zone of hyperemia.

This area of a burn is the area is less severe and processes reversible damage and surrounds the zone of coagulation. What zone is this?

This zone is known as the zone of stasis.

What type of diabetes happens when the pancreas fails to produce enough or any insulin. They are also underweight and have polyuria. They require insulin injections for the rest of their life.

This type of diabetes is known as Type 1 diabetes mellitus.

What type of diabetes happens when there is insulin resistance due to excess sugar consumption. The patient has obesity and hyperglycemia.

This type of diabetes is known as Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

You are treating a 45 year old patient and check their blood glucose and it’s currently around 180 mg/dl. The patient is very thirsty and says they use the bathroom a lot. You also notice a fruity breath oder. What is one treatment goal what should be done for this patient?

Recognize possible diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), stop the session, and refer the patient for immediate medical evaluation.

Are you working with a patient in physical therapy and they start to become confused and with blurred vision. They have a history of type 1 diabetes. What should be the first course of action?

Check the patient's blood glucose levels immediately and provide fast-acting carbohydrates if hypoglycemia is suspected.

You are treating a patient who is fully depentant. They have been in supine for an unknwon amount of time and you notice slight redness on the heels of their feet. How many hours should you reposition the patient in bed?

Typically every two hours.

A patient with an arterial insufficiency ulcer on the lateral ankle reports increased pain when lying in bed at night. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate?

Recommend that the patient sleep with the leg in a dependent position.

A patient with a venous stasis ulcer over the medial ankle presents with significant edema. Which of the following should the physical therapist AVOID during treatment?

Using elastic bandages or compression garments that are too tight.

You are treating a patient with diabetes who presents with a plantar ulcer beneath the first metatarsal head. The wound is surrounded by callus, and the patient reports no pain in the area. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate?

Educate the patient on daily foot inspection and proper footwear.

A 25 year old female patient has sustained burns to the back of the right arm, posterior trunk, front of the left leg, anterior head and neck, and perineum. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

37%

A 68 year old male patient has partial thickness burns to the front and back of the right and left leg, front of right arm, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

58.5%

A 35 year old male patient has full thickness burns to the anterior and posterior head and neck, front of left leg, and perineum. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

19%

A patient mentions that she struggles to hold her urine when she lifts or sneezes. What type of incontinance does this fall under?

Stress incontinence due to pressure on the bladder.

A patient mentions he struggles to make it to the bathroom due to his poor modility needing a bedpan. What type of incontinence would this be?

Functional incontinence due to impaired mobility.

A patient mentions their bladder is always full when they pee. what type of incontinence does this fall under?

Overflow incontinence due to bladder factors like enlarged prostate.

A patient mentions they need to rush to the bathroom when they hear water running or when they put their key in the door. What incontinence does this fall under?

Urge incontinence due to triggered by specific stimuli.

A physical therapy intervention that can be used to treat stress incontinence is?

pelvic floor exercises or Kegel exercises.

A patient with cognitive problems is most likely to present with which of the follow incontinences?

Functional incontinence due to cognitive impairments affecting awareness or delayed responses.

A patient is showing signs of an enlarged prostate. which type of incontinence would they most likely present ?

Overflow incontinence due to bladder obstruction.

A therapist is working with a 4 year old boy what shows a positive Gower’s sign, muscle weakness, and has increased lumbar lordosis. The patient would mostly likely have which of the follow pathologies?

Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

A therapist instructs a patient to stand up from the floor, and notices the patient needs to walk his hands towards his feet to stand up. Which test is this?

This is a test for Gower's sign, indicating potential muscular dystrophy.

A PT is working with a 60 year old patient with a resting tremor in his hands, a stooped posture, and dimished arm swinging. What is the follow pathologies would this fall under?

Parkinson's disease.

A PTA is working with a 80 year old patient with Parkinson’s disease and watches his gait down a hallway. What type of gait would he/she expect to see?

A shuffling gait with difficulty initiating movement and reduced arm swing.

A PT is reading a patient’s chart in the morning and see’s they are taking the medication levodopa. What is the need for this medication?

Levodopa is used to increase dopamine levels in patients with Parkinson's disease, helping to manage symptoms such as tremors, stiffness, and bradykinesia.

A PT is working with a patient with Parkinson’s disease and the patient experiences freezing during gait. What strategy can a therapist use to help with freezing during gait?

A therapist can encourage the patient to step over an obstacle or use auditory cues such as a metronome to facilitate movement.

What is a measurable balance scale that can be used on a patient with Parkinson’s disease to test for fall risk?

The Berg Balance Scale is a measurable balance assessment tool used to evaluate fall risk in patients with Parkinson's disease.

A 50 year old woman is in physical therapy for chronic pain. She mentions she experienced an injury to her hand and she has visable edema with severe buring pain on her distal extremity. She’s taking NSAIDS for pain relief. What pathology would this fall under?

This presentation is consistent with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)

A patient resports they are taking NSAIDs. What is the primary purpase of an NSAID?

The primary purpose of an NSAID is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.

You are reading a patient’s chart and see that they are taking a calcium channel blocker medication. What is the primary purpase of this medication?

The primary purpose of a calcium channel blocker is to relax blood vessels, improve blood flow, and decrease blood pressure.

For a patient who had a total shoulder arthroplasty 5 days ago, which of the following interventions would MOST effectively minimize joint adhesions?

Passive range of motion in a pain-free range

A patient demonstrates foot slap during the early stance phase of gait while wearing an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO). Which of the following orthotic issues is the MOST likely cause of this deviation?

Inadequate dorsiflexion assistance from the AFO.

A patient demonstrates toe drag during swing phase due to weak dorsiflexors following a stroke. Which of the following orthotic interventions would MOST likely assist the patient in clearing the foot during swing?

Posterior leaf spring AFO

You are talking with a patient, and they mention they have polydipsia. What exactly does that term mean?

excessive thirst or increased fluid intake, often resulting from conditions such as diabetes or dehydration.

What type of test is used to assesse volitional movement of the extremities after a stroke (CVA)?

Fugl-Meyer Assessment (FMA)

You are working with a parkinson’s patient and they start to show akinesia. what’s the best way to describe the term akinesia?

Absence of movement start → freezing/sudden stop.

A patient needs to get a surgical release for this Dupuytren contracture. Which area most likely will be cut and released?

Palmar fascia

A patient reports pain when she flexes is pointer finger. She describes it as a pop or a clitch sound when she extends her finger. what do you suspect is the issue?

Trigger finger.

In a patient with unilateral hip impairment, a cane is ordinarily used on the:

uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the abductors on the involved side.

Which of the following areas is MOST susceptible to a pressure injury when a patient is in sidelying position?

Greater trochanter of the femur

The MOST important precaution for preventing a nosocomial infection is:

hand hygiene.

A nosocomial infection can be described as:

an infection acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting that was not present at the time of admission.

A patient who has a spinal cord injury demonstrates signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate to take?

Check the patient's catheter tube.

Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate for pain management?

Apply quadripolar transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation to the painful area

A patient has recently undergone a posterior total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following movements should the patient avoid during the first 6–8 weeks postoperatively?

Hip adduction past midline

A patient recovering from an anterior total hip arthroplasty is being instructed on safe transfers. Which instruction is MOST appropriate?

Avoid stepping backward with the operated leg

A physical therapist is reviewing clinical features of post-polio syndrome (PPS) in a patient with a history of poliomyelitis. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with post-polio syndrome?

Muscle hypertrophy or strengthening

_____ is a chronic progressive disease characterized by low bone mass, impaired bone quality, decreased bone strength, and enhanced risk of fractures

Osteoporosis

Which of the following conditions is BEST characterized by early-stage joint space narrowing and articular cartilage erosion, and late-stage osteophyte formation and articular cartilage fissuring and eburnation?

Osteoarthritis

A patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome is MOST likely to exhibit which of the following signs and symptoms?

Muscle weakness that progresses from distal to proximal and diminished deep tendon reflexes

Which of the following characteristics MOST likely would be associated with the presence of a superficial partial-thickness burn?

Extreme pain

What is the purpose of the The ankle-brachial index test?

a quick, simple way to check for peripheral artery disease (PAD)

The term Hallux, means what in related to the body?

Big toe.

The term digiti minimi, refers to what body part?

the smallest toe or finger.

The term brevis, refers to what in terms of the body part?

short/proximal

Muscle: Abductor digiti minimi (foot)

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Abducts the 5th toe; lateral plantar nerve

Muscle: Flexor hallucis brevis

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Flexes proximal phalanx of big toe; medial plantar nerve

Muscle: Flexor hallucis longus

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Flexes distal phalanx of big toe; tibial nerve

Muscle: Extensor hallucis brevis

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Extends MTP of big toe; deep fibular nerve

Muscle: Extensor hallucis longus

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Extends distal phalanx of big toe; deep fibular nerve

Muscle: Abductor hallucis

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Abducts big toe; medial plantar nerve

Muscle: Adductor hallucis

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Adducts big toe; lateral plantar nerve

A patient reports sudden, severe pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, with redness and swelling that started overnight. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Gout flare-up or attack.

A patient presents with lateral deviation of the big toe at the MTP joint, pain over the medial eminence, and difficulty wearing shoes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hallux valgus

A physical therapist wants to test the L5 myotome in a patient. Which of the following movements is MOST appropriate to assess?

Great toe extension against resistance

Muscle: Abductor digiti minimi (foot)

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Abducts little toe; lateral plantar nerve

Muscle: Flexor digiti minimi brevis

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Flexes MTP of little toe; lateral plantar nerve

Muscle: Flexor digitorum brevis

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Flexes middle phalanges of toes 2–5; medial plantar nerve

Muscle: Flexor digitorum longus

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Flexes distal phalanges of toes 2–5; tibial nerve

Muscle: Extensor digitorum brevis

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Extends MTP joints of toes 2–4; deep fibular nerve

Muscle: Extensor digitorum longus

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Extends MTP and IP joints of toes 2–5; deep fibular nerve

Muscle: Gastrocnemius

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Plantarflexes ankle and flexes knee; tibial nerve

Muscle: Soleus

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Plantarflexes ankle only; tibial nerve

Muscle: Tibialis anterior

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

A. Dorsiflexes ankle and inverts foot; deep fibular nerve
B. Plantarflexes ankle and inverts foot; tibial nerve
C. Everts foot; superficial fibular nerve
D. Dorsiflexes ankle only; deep fibular nerve

Dorsiflexes ankle and inverts foot; deep fibular nerve

Muscle: Tibialis posterior

Which of the following correctly describes its action and innervation?

Plantarflexes ankle and inverts foot; tibial nerve 

Compared to the Gastrocnemius + soleus muscle, what does the Tibialis posterior do in particular alongside plantar flexion? 

It primarily supports the medial arch of the foot and assists in inversion.

A physical therapist plans to use Russian stimulation to improve quadriceps strength in a patient post-ACL reconstruction. Which electrode placement method is most appropriate?

Bipolar

A patient presents with low back pain. The therapist decides to use interferential current (IFC) for pain control. Which electrode placement is most appropriate?

Quadripolar electrodes placed around the painful area.

A patient with lateral epicondylitis requires iontophoresis using dexamethasone. Which electrode placement method is most appropriate?

Monopolar

A 22-year-old with radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop. Which electrotherapy setup is most effective for muscle re-education of the wrist extensors?

Bipolar electrode placement with stimulation on the wrist extensors.

A 30-year-old patient presents to physical therapy with complaints of difficulty holding objects and inability to extend the wrist. On examination, the therapist observes wrist drop, weakness of finger extension, and sensory loss along the dorsum of the hand. Which nerve is most likely involved?

Radial nerve

A 45-year-old patient presents with difficulty opposing the thumb and weakness in precision grip. The therapist observes atrophy of the thenar eminence and an “ape hand” posture. Which nerve is most likely injured?

Median nerve

A 50-year-old patient complains of numbness in the little finger and half of the ring finger. On exam, the therapist notes weakness of finger abduction/adduction and a clawing posture of the 4th and 5th digits. Which nerve is most likely injured?

Ulnar nerve

A Patient is in a room with TB what precautions would need to be followed ? 

Airborne precautions, including a fitted N95 respirator, negative pressure room, and limiting patient transport.

Which of the following pathologies are airbrone precautions?

Tuberculosis, measles, varicella

Which of the following pathologies are droplet require droplet precautions?

Influenza, pertussis, rubella

A patient is observed to produce more than 3 liters of urine in a 24-hour period. Which term best describes this condition?

Polyuria