boc prep pt 12

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Last updated 8:52 PM on 7/16/26
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80 Terms

1
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Cardiovascular referral alerts include what signs?

Chest pain, shortness of breath, unexplained swelling in arms and legs

2
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A patient can extend the knee against gravity but cannot overcome resistance. What MMT grade?

Fair 3/5

3
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Which injury has an insidious onset?

Achilles tendinopathy

4
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What areas may require patient-clinician communication and understanding?

Religious considerations, family considerations, language barriers, cultural differences

5
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What is a Patient Rated Outcome Measure?

Provides a standardized means to quantify patient impairments and tailor interventions specific to the patient

6
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What is a Clinician Rated Outcome Measure?

Quantifies extent of patient ROM and function

7
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What does the ICF model allow?

Allows the patient to be seen as a person rather than a disability

8
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All are part of inspection except what?

Point tenderness

9
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Which part of the exam is most informative?

History

10
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What does the medical record NOT allow?

Giving the treatment protocol for the patient

11
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What provides a broad framework for the examination process?

ICF

12
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What ICF section contains history, pain questionnaires, examination notes, and stability test results?

Body structure and functions

13
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What is triage?

Process of determining priority of treatment

14
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What is a sign?

A condition visually apparent to the examiner (example: vomiting)

15
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What is a symptom?

A condition not usually visually apparent to the examiner (example: nausea)

16
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What does proximal mean?

Toward the midline of the body

17
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What does distal mean?

Away from the midline of the body

18
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What is an effusion?

Collection of fluid within a joint space

19
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What is edema?

Collection of fluid in the intercellular space

20
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What is bradycardia?

Slow heart rate

21
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What is tachycardia?

High heart rate

22
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Which evaluation is used as the baseline for treatment and rehabilitation?

Initial evaluation

23
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For every minute defibrillation is delayed, survival decreases by what percentage?

10%

24
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What type of consent is needed before evaluating an injury?

Informed consent

25
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What should be included in emergency action planning?

Personnel, equipment, lines of communication

26
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When should active ROM NOT be completed?

Fracture

27
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How many responders should ideally begin the evaluation process?

2 responders

28
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What must occur before manual muscle testing?

Active range of motion (AROM)

29
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After splinting, worsening pain may indicate what?

Check capillary refill distal to injury site

30
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Football face mask removal is easiest using what?

Cordless screwdriver

31
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What pathological end-feel is caused by involuntary or voluntary muscle contraction stopping joint motion?

Spasm

32
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When a spinal nerve root innervates a specific skin area, what is tested?

Dermatome

33
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List four signs of shock.

Rapid heart rate, low blood pressure, pale/cool skin, altered mental status

34
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What maneuver is used to reinforce reflex testing?

Jendrassik maneuver

<p>Jendrassik maneuver</p>
35
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What systolic blood pressure range is considered elevated by the AHA?

120-129 mmHg

36
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Before performing MMT on the knee, what should occur first?

The athlete should be able to perform active ROM (AROM)

37
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What motor testing is associated with the C4 nerve root level?

Shoulder shrug

38
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A patient who can move through full ROM in a gravity-eliminated position receives what MMT grade?

2/5 Poor

39
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In normal healthy tissue, how does AROM compare to PROM?

Active ROM is less than passive ROM

40
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Athletes who exaggerate or fake signs/symptoms are demonstrating what?

Malingering

41
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Which component of the exam is most informative?

History

42
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Which sport does not allow protective equipment that increases the size of the goalkeeper?

Field Hockey

43
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Which sport allows time-limited medical and bleeding timeouts?

Tennis

44
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Which sport requires hard equipment to be covered with padding and knee braces covered or worn under clothing?

Football

45
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Which sport allows bleeding timeouts at the official's discretion?

Wrestling

46
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Which sport requires ATs/staff to be instructed by an official before entering the field?

Soccer

47
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Which sport requires an injured player to leave if medical staff enter the court?

Basketball

48
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Which sport requires hard casts to be padded and allows one elbow pad under 10 inches?

Baseball

49
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Which sport requires the athletic trainer to be summoned before entering the field/court/mat?

Soccer

50
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Return-to-activity decisions should consider all except what?

Athlete's gender

51
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During immediate on-field examination, what should be evaluated first?

Obstructed airway

52
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Most important test while athlete is still on the field?

AROM

53
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What are Biot's respirations?

Group of regular breaths followed by irregular patterns of apnea

54
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What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

Periods of apnea followed by breaths of increasing depth

55
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What are apneustic breaths?

Prolonged inspirations without attempts to exhale

56
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What is an accelerated heart rate?

Pulse above 150 beats per minute

57
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What is low tension pulse?

Short, fast, faint pulse that rapidly declines

58
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What is a pulse deficit?

Number of heartbeats is less in radial pulse than over the heart

59
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Weakness of what muscle causes scapular winging?

Serratus anterior

60
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A Bankart lesion involves which ligament pulling off with part of the labrum?

Inferior glenohumeral ligament

61
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Starting position for the empty can test?

GH abducted 90° in the scapular plane with humerus internally rotated

62
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Deltoid atrophy indicates injury to what nerve roots?

C5 and C6

63
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Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the humerus?

Subscapularis

64
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What is the closed-packed position of the GH joint?

90° abduction with external rotation

65
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The upper extremity's only attachment to the axial skeleton occurs at what joint?

Sternoclavicular joint

66
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What radial fracture displaces palmarly?

Smith's fracture

67
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Fracture of the base of the first metacarpal extending into the articular surface?

Bennett's fracture

68
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Which carpal bone floats on the triquetrum?

Pisiform

69
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Rupture of central extensor tendon causing lateral bands to slip palmarly at the PIP?

Boutonnière deformity

70
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Which carpal bone is the floor of the anatomical snuffbox?

Scaphoid

71
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Which wrist pathology is associated with clicking on the ulnar side of the wrist?

Triangular fibrocartilage tear (TFCC)

72
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Which nerve travels through Guyon's tunnel?

Ulnar nerve

73
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Primary extensor of the lateral four fingers' IP joints?

Extensor Digitorum

74
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Angle formed by the long axis of the humerus and ulna?

Carrying angle

75
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Which nerve enters the elbow at the arcade of Struthers?

Ulnar nerve

76
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Which UCL bundle is the primary restraint against valgus force beyond 60° elbow flexion?

Posterior bundle

77
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The radioulnar joints are classified as what type of joint?

Syndesmotic

78
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What forms the lateral humeral articulating surface?

Capitellum

79
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What is the Y-shaped ligament of the hip originating from AIIS?

Iliofemoral ligament

80
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What position describes a posterior hip dislocation?

Adduction and internal rotation