Health Care and Public Policy Exam 1 Questions

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Last updated 4:03 PM on 9/23/26
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100 Terms

1
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Which of the following is a key characteristic of the U.S. healthcare system? a. Universal insurance coverage b. Market-oriented system c. All hospitals are government owned d. One central agency controls healthcare
b. Market-oriented system
2
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Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of the U.S. health system? a. Fragmented care b. Multiple providers in different settings c. Universal health insurance coverage d. A market-oriented system
c. Universal health insurance coverage
3
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What is one major role of the government in the U.S. healthcare system? a. Owning all hospitals b. Employing all physicians c. Financing Medicare and Medicaid d. Eliminating private insurance
c. Financing Medicare and Medicaid
4
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In a fee-for-service payment system, providers are generally paid based on: a. Patient satisfaction only b. The quantity of services provided c. The patient's income d. Population health outcomes
b. The quantity of services provided
5
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One concern with the fee-for-service model is that it may encourage: a. Fewer medical services b. Shorter hospital stays c. More services and longer hospital stays d. Greater focus on prevention
c. More services and longer hospital stays
6
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Fee-for-service models are increasingly being replaced by: a. Cash-only healthcare b. Government-owned hospitals c. Value-based payment models and managed care d. Charity care
c. Value-based payment models and managed care
7
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Approximately how much did the United States spend on healthcare according to the 2024 estimates in the lecture? a. $500 billion b. $1.5 trillion c. $3 trillion d. $5.3 trillion
d. $5.3 trillion
8
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Approximately what percentage of U.S. GDP was represented by national health expenditures in the lecture? a. 5% b. 10% c. 18% d. 30%
c. 18%
9
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Which is an important current priority of the U.S. health system? a. Increasing medical errors b. Increasing the uninsured population c. Improving access and coverage d. Eliminating preventive services
c. Improving access and coverage
10
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Which of the following are considered healthcare stakeholders? Select all that apply. a. Physicians and nurses b. Hospitals c. Insurers d. Health policymakers e. The public
a. Physicians and nurses, b. Hospitals, c. Insurers, d. Health policymakers, e. The public
11
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Which type of healthcare service focuses on preventing disease and maintaining good health? a. Preventive care b. Acute care c. Palliative care d. Hospice care
a. Preventive care
12
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Which is an example of primary prevention? a. Immunization b. Cancer screening c. Cardiac rehabilitation d. Treatment after a heart attack
a. Immunization
13
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Which is an example of secondary prevention? a. Vaccination b. Screening for early detection of disease c. Hospice care d. Rehabilitation after a stroke
b. Screening for early detection of disease
14
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Which is an example of tertiary prevention? a. Preventing smoking initiation b. Immunizations c. Blood pressure screening d. Education on wound care for a person with diabetes
d. Education on wound care for a person with diabetes
15
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Acute care is best described as: a. Lifelong assistance with daily activities b. Short-term, intense medical care for illness or injury c. Care provided only in nursing homes d. Care focused only on prevention
b. Short-term, intense medical care for illness or injury
16
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Which provider typically provides both primary and preventive services? a. Cardiologist b. Neurologist c. Primary care provider d. Hospice provider
c. Primary care provider
17
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Which level of care involves trained specialists such as cardiologists and neurologists? a. Primary care b. Specialty care c. Hospice care d. Home health
b. Specialty care
18
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Which level of care involves hospitalization and more complex therapeutic interventions? a. Primary b. Preventive c. Tertiary d. Home health
c. Tertiary
19
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The most complex medical or surgical care, including experimental procedures, is considered: a. Primary care b. Secondary care c. Tertiary care d. Quaternary care
d. Quaternary care
20
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Rehabilitation hospitals commonly provide which services? Select all that apply. a. Physical therapy b. Occupational therapy c. Speech/language pathology d. Restaurant inspections
a. Physical therapy, b. Occupational therapy, c. Speech/language pathology
21
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Community health centers primarily focus on: a. Experimental surgery b. Hospice care c. Preventive and primary care d. Quaternary care
c. Preventive and primary care
22
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Rural hospitals are at greater risk of: a. Having too many specialists b. Shutting down c. Receiving too many patients d. Becoming academic medical centers
b. Shutting down
23
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An integrated delivery system where organizations at the same level of care consolidate is called: a. Horizontal integration b. Vertical integration c. Primary integration d. Preventive integration
a. Horizontal integration
24
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A merger between two hospitals is an example of: a. Horizontal integration b. Vertical integration c. Quaternary integration d. Public health integration
a. Horizontal integration
25
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A hospital acquiring a physician practice, nursing home, and hospice center is an example of: a. Horizontal integration b. Vertical integration c. Primary prevention d. Managed competition
b. Vertical integration
26
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Public health is best described as: a. Treating one patient at a time b. Providing hospital services c. What society does collectively to assure conditions for people to be healthy d. Providing health insurance
c. What society does collectively to assure conditions for people to be healthy
27
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Population health primarily focuses on: a. One individual patient b. Health status and outcomes of specific populations c. Hospital finances d. Medical licensing
b. Health status and outcomes of specific populations
28
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Which of the following are the three core functions of public health? a. Prevention, diagnosis, treatment b. Assessment, policy development, assurance c. Federal, state, local d. Primary, secondary, tertiary
b. Assessment, policy development, assurance
29
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A health department reviewing local data to determine hypertension rates is an example of: a. Assessment b. Assurance c. Policy development d. Tertiary prevention
a. Assessment
30
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Developing a plan to increase blood pressure screening is an example of: a. Assessment b. Policy development c. Assurance d. Diagnosis
b. Policy development
31
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Making sure blood pressure screening and follow-up services are actually available is an example of: a. Assessment b. Policy development c. Assurance d. Surveillance
c. Assurance
32
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Monitoring health status to identify community health problems falls under: a. Assessment b. Assurance c. Treatment d. Financing
a. Assessment
33
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Informing and educating people about health issues falls primarily under: a. Assessment b. Policy development c. Acute care d. Tertiary care
b. Policy development
34
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Enforcing laws and regulations related to health is part of: a. Assessment b. Policy development c. Assurance d. Diagnosis
c. Assurance
35
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Who has primary authority for public health in the United States? a. Local governments b. Federal government c. State governments d. Hospitals
c. State governments
36
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Why do public health agencies often need to collaborate with other organizations? a. They have unlimited legal authority b. They have unlimited funding c. They may lack the legal authority and financial resources to address problems alone d. Collaboration is prohibited by law
c. They may lack the legal authority and financial resources to address problems alone
37
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Public health agencies may collaborate with medical providers during assessment in order to obtain: a. Restaurant menus b. Data on births, deaths, and health hazards c. Insurance premiums d. Hospital advertisements
b. Data on births, deaths, and health hazards
38
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Primary prevention occurs: a. Before the onset of disease b. After complications occur c. Only after hospitalization d. At the end of life
a. Before the onset of disease
39
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Which is a population-level example of primary prevention? a. One patient quitting smoking b. Establishing bike and walking paths c. Treating a heart attack d. Cardiac rehabilitation
b. Establishing bike and walking paths
40
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Screening and identifying disease before complications occur is: a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Palliative prevention
b. Secondary prevention
41
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Treating established disease to restore function and prevent complications is: a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Universal prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
42
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A universal prevention program: a. Only targets people with diagnosed disease b. Provides the intervention to the entire population c. Only targets high-risk individuals d. Only occurs in hospitals
b. Provides the intervention to the entire population
43
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A targeted prevention program focuses on: a. Everyone equally b. Higher-risk populations c. Only healthcare providers d. Only children
b. Higher-risk populations
44
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Which is an example of a universal traffic-safety intervention? a. Targeting repeat drunk drivers b. Seat belts and airbags c. Alcohol treatment for one person d. DUI counseling
b. Seat belts and airbags
45
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Which is an example of targeted prevention? a. Airbags in every vehicle b. Seat belt requirements c. Programs specifically addressing drunk driving d. Clean drinking water standards
c. Programs specifically addressing drunk driving
46
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Floor preemption establishes: a. A maximum standard that lower governments cannot exceed b. Minimum protections that lower levels of government may make stricter c. No government standards d. Local control only
b. Minimum protections that lower levels of government may make stricter
47
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Which is an example of floor preemption from the lecture? a. The Clean Water Act establishing minimum standards b. A state preventing cities from taxing sugary drinks c. A city eliminating state regulations d. A hospital setting insurance requirements
a. The Clean Water Act establishing minimum standards
48
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Ceiling preemption occurs when: a. Local governments are required to establish stricter laws b. Higher-level laws prevent lower governments from adopting stricter regulations c. The federal government has no authority d. Public health laws are eliminated
b. Higher-level laws prevent lower governments from adopting stricter regulations
49
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A state prevents cities from adopting stricter regulations on sugar-sweetened beverages. This is an example of: a. Floor preemption b. Ceiling preemption c. Secondary prevention d. Local autonomy
b. Ceiling preemption
50
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In a decentralized public health system: a. The federal government makes all staffing decisions b. Local governments make staffing and budgeting decisions c. The state controls every local employee d. Private hospitals control public health departments
b. Local governments make staffing and budgeting decisions
51
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Population health focuses on: a. Only individual diagnoses b. Health outcomes within a defined group of people c. Only hospital patients d. Only infectious diseases
b. Health outcomes within a defined group of people
52
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A population can be defined based on: a. Geography b. Health diagnosis c. Healthcare provider d. All of the above
d. All of the above
53
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The population health model places particular emphasis on: a. Emergency surgery b. Individual treatment only c. Upstream causes of health d. Hospital billing
c. Upstream causes of health
54
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Treating a patient who already has diabetes is considered: a. Downstream b. Midstream c. Upstream d. Primary prevention
a. Downstream
55
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A community program providing free exercise and nutrition programs to people at high risk for diabetes is: a. Downstream b. Midstream c. Upstream d. Quaternary
b. Midstream
56
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Changing neighborhood policies to make communities more walkable is an example of: a. Downstream intervention b. Midstream intervention c. Upstream intervention d. Clinical treatment
c. Upstream intervention
57
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Which of the following is a determinant of health? Select all that apply. a. Social and economic environment b. Physical environment c. Access to healthcare d. Genetics and epigenetics e. Health-related behaviors
a. Social and economic environment, b. Physical environment, c. Access to healthcare, d. Genetics and epigenetics, e. Health-related behaviors
58
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Economic stability refers to: a. Having reliable income and financial resources to meet basic needs b. Having private insurance only c. Living close to a hospital d. Having a college degree
a. Having reliable income and financial resources to meet basic needs
59
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Lack of economic stability may make it difficult to afford which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Healthy foods b. Healthcare c. Housing d. None of the above
a. Healthy foods, b. Healthcare, c. Housing
60
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Lack of economic stability may contribute to: a. Reduced stress in all cases b. Chronic stress c. Guaranteed healthcare access d. Higher educational attainment
b. Chronic stress
61
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Which measures could be used to examine economic stability in a community? Select all that apply. a. Unemployment rate b. Median household income c. Percentage of the population below the federal poverty line d. Number of surgical procedures performed
a. Unemployment rate, b. Median household income, c. Percentage of the population below the federal poverty line
62
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Education can influence health through: a. Employment opportunities b. Income stability c. Health literacy and decision making d. All of the above
d. All of the above
63
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Which is a possible local policy response to lower educational attainment? a. Reduce school enrollment b. Offer free or low-cost GED programs c. Close tutoring programs d. Reduce workforce training
b. Offer free or low-cost GED programs
64
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Healthcare access and quality includes which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Health insurance coverage b. Availability of primary care and specialists c. Affordability of services d. Quality and continuity of care
a. Health insurance coverage, b. Availability of primary care and specialists, c. Affordability of services, d. Quality and continuity of care
65
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Neighborhood and built environment includes: a. Housing b. Transportation c. Parks and sidewalks d. Neighborhood safety e. All of the above
e. All of the above
66
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Which could indicate problems with the neighborhood and built environment? a. Housing cost burden b. Lack of public transportation c. Poor walkability d. High violent crime rates e. All of the above
e. All of the above
67
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Which is a possible local policy intervention addressing the built environment? a. Eliminating parks b. Installing sidewalks and street lighting c. Increasing housing instability d. Reducing pedestrian crossings
b. Installing sidewalks and street lighting
68
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Social and community context refers to: a. Only healthcare insurance b. Relationships, social support, and civic life c. Genetics d. Medical technology
b. Relationships, social support, and civic life
69
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Social and community context includes which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Family networks b. Social support c. Civic participation d. Discrimination and social exclusion
a. Family networks, b. Social support, c. Civic participation, d. Discrimination and social exclusion
70
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Poor social and community conditions may be associated with: a. Better mental health in every population b. Depression and loneliness c. Guaranteed healthcare access d. No health effects
b. Depression and loneliness
71
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Which is an example of a community-level response to social isolation? a. Increasing hospital prices b. Developing senior or community centers c. Eliminating neighborhood organizations d. Closing public spaces
b. Developing senior or community centers
72
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The medical model primarily focuses on: a. Individuals, diagnosis, and treatment b. Population resource allocation only c. Built environment d. Community policy
a. Individuals, diagnosis, and treatment
73
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A medical model approach to obesity would be MOST likely to focus on which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Number of sidewalks in the neighborhood b. Access to grocery stores c. Hormonal causes of obesity d. Medical or surgical treatment
c. Hormonal causes of obesity, d. Medical or surgical treatment
74
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A population health approach to obesity would be MOST likely to examine which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Food deserts b. Neighborhood walkability c. Access to healthy foods d. Availability of parks and recreation
a. Food deserts, b. Neighborhood walkability, c. Access to healthy foods, d. Availability of parks and recreation
75
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Health equity may require: a. Giving every person the exact same resources regardless of barriers b. Removing preexisting barriers to health for some populations c. Focusing only on individual behavior d. Eliminating community interventions
b. Removing preexisting barriers to health for some populations
76
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Which of the following is a major modifiable behavioral risk factor for chronic disease? a. Genetics b. Tobacco use c. Age d. Family history
b. Tobacco use
77
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Which are major modifiable behavioral risk factors for chronic disease? Select all that apply. a. Tobacco use b. Unhealthy diet c. Physical inactivity d. Excessive alcohol use
a. Tobacco use, b. Unhealthy diet, c. Physical inactivity, d. Excessive alcohol use
78
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Which is considered a metabolic risk factor for chronic disease? a. Tobacco use b. Physical inactivity c. High blood pressure d. Excessive alcohol use
c. High blood pressure
79
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According to the lecture, health behaviors are influenced by: a. Motivation only b. Genetics only c. Social determinants of health as well as individual factors d. Healthcare providers only
c. Social determinants of health as well as individual factors
80
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Which behavior causes more preventable deaths than any other risky health behavior according to the lecture? a. Tobacco use b. Lack of sleep c. Poor diet d. Alcohol use
a. Tobacco use
81
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Alcohol misuse is described as being most common among: a. Infants b. Older adults c. Young adults d. Children
c. Young adults
82
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Physical activity can have positive effects on: a. Physical health only b. Mental health only c. Both physical and mental health d. Neither
c. Both physical and mental health
83
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Why is physical activity NOT simply an individual responsibility? a. Exercise has no health benefits b. Opportunities to exercise may not be equally accessible to vulnerable populations c. Everyone has equal access to safe parks d. Motivation is the only influence
b. Opportunities to exercise may not be equally accessible to vulnerable populations
84
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A food desert is generally a low-income area where: a. Everyone has easy supermarket access b. A significant number or share of residents live far from the nearest supermarket c. Restaurants are prohibited d. Only organic food is sold
b. A significant number or share of residents live far from the nearest supermarket
85
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According to the lecture, healthy sleep is approximately: a. 3–4 hours per 24-hour cycle b. 5–6 hours per 24-hour cycle c. 7–8 hours per 24-hour cycle d. 10–12 hours per 24-hour cycle
c. 7–8 hours per 24-hour cycle
86
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Chronic stress is linked to: a. Better physical health b. Better health behaviors c. Poor physical health, mental health, and health behaviors d. No health effects
c. Poor physical health, mental health, and health behaviors
87
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The Health Belief Model primarily focuses on: a. What people believe about risks and benefits b. Government regulation c. Hospital consolidation d. Social networks only
a. What people believe about risks and benefits
88
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“I'm likely to catch the flu” is an example of: a. Perceived susceptibility b. Perceived severity c. Perceived benefits d. Perceived barriers
a. Perceived susceptibility
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“The flu can make me really sick” is an example of: a. Perceived susceptibility b. Perceived severity c. Perceived benefits d. Perceived barriers
b. Perceived severity
90
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“Flu shots keep me healthy” is an example of: a. Perceived susceptibility b. Perceived severity c. Perceived benefits d. Perceived barriers
c. Perceived benefits
91
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“The clinic is too far away” is an example of: a. Perceived susceptibility b. Perceived severity c. Perceived benefits d. Perceived barriers
d. Perceived barriers
92
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Social Learning Theory emphasizes: a. Only explaining why someone should change b. Teaching how behavior can be changed and changing the environment c. Medical treatment only d. Government regulation only
b. Teaching how behavior can be changed and changing the environment
93
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Which is consistent with Social Learning Theory? Select all that apply. a. Increasing knowledge about risks and benefits b. Developing skills to overcome the behavior c. Developing a support system d. Reengineering the immediate environment
a. Increasing knowledge about risks and benefits, b. Developing skills to overcome the behavior, c. Developing a support system, d. Reengineering the immediate environment
94
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A smoker says, “I don't want to quit smoking.” Which stage of change are they in? a. Pre-contemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Maintenance
a. Pre-contemplation
95
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A smoker says, “Maybe I should quit.” Which stage of change are they in? a. Pre-contemplation b. Contemplation c. Action d. Maintenance
b. Contemplation
96
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A smoker says, “I'll set a quit date for next month.” Which stage of change are they in? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance
b. Preparation
97
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Someone who has quit smoking for three weeks is in which stage of change? a. Preparation b. Action c. Maintenance d. Pre-contemplation
b. Action
98
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In the COM-B model, the presence of sidewalks, safe parks, and social encouragement represents: a. Capability b. Opportunity c. Motivation d. Susceptibility
b. Opportunity
99
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In the COM-B model, knowing safe exercise techniques represents: a. Capability b. Opportunity c. Motivation d. Maintenance
a. Capability
100
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a. Downstream = public policy; upstream = individual clinical treatment b. Midstream = individual clinical treatment only c. Downstream = individual clinical approaches; midstream = schools, worksites, and communities; upstream = public policy d. Upstream = hospital treatment only

c. Downstream = individual clinical approaches; midstream = schools, worksites, and communities; upstream = public policy