DEN 7101S Exam 2 High Yield

Which of the following coagulation factors is not vitamin K-dependent?

a) Factor II

b) Factor V

c) Factor VII

d) Factor X

B. Factor V

Which factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?

a) Factor II

b) Factor V

c) Factor VIII

d) Factor X

Factor VIII

Which of the following is the final step in clot formation?

a) Platelet aggregation

b) Thrombin activation

c) Fibrin formation

d) Prothrombin conversion

C. fibrin formation

The final step of the coagulation cascade is the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin

Which pathway involves the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?

a) Extrinsic pathway

b) Intrinsic pathway

c) Common pathway

d) Alternative pathway

C. Common Pathway

Lymphatic flow is best described as:

a) A two-way circulation between blood and tissues

b) One-way flow from interstitial fluid to the blood

c) A closed loop system like the cardiovascular system

d) Directly filtering blood through lymph nodes

B. One-way flow from interstitial fluid to the blood

Which of the following would NOT contribute to edema?

a) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

b) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

c) Lymphatic obstruction

d) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

D. decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

Which of the following is false about gap junctions?

a) They allow ion exchange between adjacent cells

b) They permit electrical coupling in cardiac muscle

c) They facilitate the passage of large proteins and glucose between cells

d) They enable synchronized contraction in smooth muscle

C. They facilitate the passage of large proteins and glucose between cells

Which of the following is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a) AV node

b) Purkinje fibers

c) SA node

d) Bundle of His

C. SA node

Which layer of the heart contains Purkinje fibers?

a) Myocardium

b) Epicardium

c) Endocardium

d) Pericardium

C. Endocardium (subendocardial layer)

Which type of capillary is the least restrictive, allowing the passage of large molecules and cells?

a) Continuous

b) Fenestrated

c) Sinusoidal (discontinuous)

d) None of the above

C. Sinusoidal (discontinuous)

Which cardiac structure has the fastest conduction velocity?

a) AV node

b) SA node

c) Purkinje fibers

d) Atrial muscle

C. Purkinje fibers

A deficiency of which factor leads to impaired platelet adhesion?

a) Heparin

b) Fibrinogen

c) Von Willebrand factor

d) Prothrombin

C. Von Willebrand Factor

Which of the following is NOT an encapsulated lymphoid structure?

a) Lymph nodes

b) Spleen

c) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue)

d) Thymus

c) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue)

Which of the following organs contain reticular fibers?

a) Liver and pancreas

b) Spleen and lymph nodes

c) Brain and spinal cord

d) Kidney and lungs

b) Spleen and lymph nodes

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the lymphatic system?

a) It helps return interstitial fluid to circulation

b) It drains into the superior and inferior vena cava

c) It plays a role in immune response

d) It filters lymph through lymph nodes

b) It drains into the superior and inferior vena cava

Which cell type is NOT found in the trachea?

a) Goblet cells

b) Ciliated columnar cells

c) Club cells

d) Basal cells

c) Club cells

Where are club cells primarily located?

a) Trachea

b) Bronchi

c) Bronchioles

d) Alveoli

c) Bronchioles

Which cardiac structure has the slowest conduction velocity?

a) SA node

b) AV node

c) Purkinje fibers

d) Atrial muscle

b) AV node

Which phase of the cardiac cycle corresponds to ventricular contraction?

a) Diastole

b) Systole

c) Isovolumetric relaxation

d) Passive filling

b) Systole

Which structure is NOT part of the respiratory portion of the lung?

a) Terminal bronchioles

b) Respiratory bronchioles

c) Alveolar ducts

d) Alveoli

a) Terminal bronchioles

What is the main histological difference between extrapulmonary and intrapulmonary bronchi?

a) Extrapulmonary bronchi have plates of hyaline cartilage, while intrapulmonary bronchi have rings.

b) Extrapulmonary bronchi have C-shaped cartilage rings, while intrapulmonary bronchi have cartilage plates.

c) Both types have cartilage rings, but intrapulmonary bronchi have more goblet cells.

d) Only intrapulmonary bronchi have smooth muscle.

b) Extrapulmonary bronchi have C-shaped cartilage rings, while intrapulmonary bronchi have cartilage plates

Blocking the parasympathetic pathway would result in:

a) Slower diastolic depolarization

b) Faster diastolic depolarization

c) No change in heart rate

d) Decreased sympathetic activity

b) Faster diastolic depolarization

know what end-diastolic volume is (and identify it from a graph)

bless

How is stroke volume (SV) calculated?

a) ESV - EDV

b) EDV + ESV

c) EDV - ESV

d) EDV × ESV

c) EDV - ESV

If the end-diastolic volume is 120 mL and the end-systolic volume is 50 mL, what is the stroke volume?

a) 50 mL

b) 70 mL

c) 120 mL

d) 170 mL

b) 70 mL

What type of cells are primarily found in the periarterial lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen?

a) B cells

b) T cells

c) Macrophages

d) Dendritic cells

b) T cells

During which phase of the cardiac action potential do calcium (Ca²⁺) channels open?

a) Phase 0 (Depolarization)

b) Phase 1 (Initial repolarization)

c) Phase 2 (Plateau)

d) Phase 3 (Repolarization)

c) Phase 2 (Plateau)

Which statement about repolarization is FALSE?

a) It involves K⁺ efflux

b) It restores the resting membrane potential

c) It is caused by K⁺ influx

d) It follows the plateau phase in cardiac muscle

c) It is caused by K⁺ influx

What is the approximate duration of a cardiac action potential in ventricular muscle cells?

a) 5 ms

b) 50 ms

c) 150 ms

d) 300 ms

d) 300 ms

Which ion is involved in blood coagulation?

a) Sodium

b) Potassium

c) Calcium

d) Magnesium

c) Calcium

Increasing arterial resistance has what effect on arterial pressure?

a) Decreases arterial pressure

b) Has no effect

c) Increases arterial pressure

d) Decreases heart rate

c) Increases arterial pressure

What valve is affected by mitral prolapse?

a) Aortic valve

b) Pulmonary valve

c) Bicuspid valve

d) Tricuspid valve

c) Bicuspid valve

What is the equation for cardiac output?

a) SV x BP

b) HR x SV

c) EDV x ESV

d) HR x BP

b) HR x SV

Changing the end-diastolic volume (EDV) affects which of the following?

a) Afterload

b) Preload

c) Heart rate

d) Stroke volume

b) Preload

Which of the following is true about the mitral valve?

a) It is also known as the tricuspid valve

b) It is also known as the bicuspid valve

c) It is located on the left side of the heart

d) It is located on the right side of the heart

b) It is also known as the bicuspid valve

What is the correct equation for alveolar ventilation?

a) TV x RR

b) (TV - Dead space) x RR

c) (RR - Dead space) x TV

d) Dead space x RR

b) (TV - Dead space) x RR

How does afterload affect end-systolic volume (ESV)?

a) ESV decreases with increased afterload

b) ESV remains unchanged with increased afterload

c) ESV increases with increased afterload

d) ESV decreases with decreased afterload

c) ESV increases with increased afterload

Which law states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases?

a) Charles's Law

b) Boyle's Law

c) Dalton's Law

d) Henry's Law

c) Dalton's Law

Where is the AV node located?

a) Medial wall of the right ventricle

b) Medial wall of the left atrium

c) Medial wall of the right atrium

d) Lateral wall of the left ventricle

c) Medial wall of the right atrium

Kidney disease can lead to which type of hypertension?

a) Primary hypertension

b) Secondary hypertension

c) Hypotension

d) Pulmonary hypertension

b) Secondary hypertension

Which phase of the cardiac cycle is phase 2?

a) Atrial contraction

b) Isovolumetric contraction

c) Ventricular ejection

d) Diastole

b) Isovolumetric contraction

What is the relationship between FVC and FEV1?

a) FVC is the air exhaled in the first second, FEV1 is total exhaled air

b) FVC is total exhaled air, FEV1 is the air exhaled in the first second

c) FEV1 is total exhaled air, FVC is the air exhaled in the first second

d) FVC and FEV1 are unrelated

b) FVC is total exhaled air, FEV1 is the air exhaled in the first second

What happens when P50 increases and pH decreases?

a) The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the left

b) The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right

c) The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve becomes steeper

d) The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve remains unchanged

b) The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right

Which of the following is false?

a) Oxygen is bound to hemoglobin in venules between breaths

b) Hemoglobin carries oxygen in both arterial and venous blood

c) Venules contain less oxygen than arteries

d) Venules have no oxygen bound to hemoglobin between breaths

d) Venules have no oxygen bound to hemoglobin between breaths

The air we expire during expiration is most similar to which?

a) Air from the trachea

b) Air from the bronchi

c) Air in the alveoli

d) Air in the pharynx

c) Air in the alveoli

Air in alveoli has PO2 of 100 and PCO2 of 40

What is the defining characteristic of the thymic medulla?

a) Hassall's corpuscles

b) T lymphocyte proliferation

c) B lymphocyte maturation

d) Myelination of nerve fibers

a) Hassall's corpuscles

A decrease in blood pressure leads to which of the following?

a) Increase in baroreceptor AP frequency

b) Decrease in baroreceptor AP frequency

c) No change in baroreceptor AP frequency

d) Immediate increase in heart rate

b) Decrease in baroreceptor AP frequency

What is false about Angiotensin II?

a) It directly affects the adrenal cortex

b) It stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex

c) It regulates blood pressure

d) It does not directly affect the adrenal cortex

d) It does not directly affect the adrenal cortex

A decrease in blood pressure causes the release of which hormone?

a) Insulin

b) Cortisol

c) ADH

d) Epinephrine

c) ADH

How is CO2 mainly transported in the blood?

a) As carbonic acid

b) As bicarbonate

c) As carbaminohemoglobin

d) As dissolved CO2

b) As bicarbonate

What enzyme catalyzes the bicarbonate reaction?

a) Amylase

b) Pepsin

c) Carbonic anhydrase

d) Lactase

c) Carbonic anhydrase

Where does the greatest drop in blood pressure occur?

a) Capillaries

b) Arteries

c) Arterioles

d) Veins

c) Arterioles

How much of T cells are broken down and eaten by macrophages in the thymus?

a) 50%

b) 70%

c) 98%

d) 100%

c) 98%

Which type of epithelial reticular cell (ERC) establishes the blood-thymus barrier?

a) Type II

b) Type I

c) Type III

d) Type IV

b) Type I

Which vessels have the highest resistance?

a) Arteries

b) Capillaries

c) Arterioles

d) Veins

c) Arterioles

Which vessels hold the most blood volume?

a) Arteries

b) Capillaries

c) Large veins

d) Arterioles

c) Large veins

What is not carried by the lymphatic system?

a) White blood cells

b) Fats

c) Red blood cells

d) Antibodies

c) Red blood cells

What is the first step of hemostasis?

a) Platelet plug formation

b) Coagulation

c) Vasoconstriction

d) Vasospasm

d) Vasospasm

What is the correct order of events in hemostasis?

a) Vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, coagulation

b) Platelet plug formation, coagulation, vasoconstriction

c) Coagulation, vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation

d) Vasoconstriction, coagulation, platelet plug formation

a) Vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, coagulation

What is the correct order of the heart's conduction system?

a) AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

b) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

c) Purkinje fibers, SA node, bundle of His, AV node

d) Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node

b) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

What does the P wave represent?

a) Ventricular contraction

b) Atrial contraction

c) Atrial depolarization

d) Ventricular depolarization

c) Atrial depolarization

What does the QRS complex represent?

a) Atrial depolarization

b) Ventricular contraction

c) Atrial contraction

d) Ventricular depolarization

d) Ventricular depolarization

What does the ECG record during the action potential of the SA node?

a) Nerve action potential

b) Muscle action potential

c) Electrical signal of the brain

d) Electrical signal from the lungs

b) Muscle action potential

Which muscles are involved during inhalation?

a) Diaphragm and internal intercostals

b) Diaphragm and external intercostals

c) Internal intercostals and abdominal muscles

d) Abdominal muscles and rectus abdominis

b) Diaphragm and external intercostals

Which of the following is true about the ventricular action potential?

a) It has slow diastolic depolarization

b) It has no slow diastolic depolarization

c) It only has a depolarization phase

d) It is the same as the pacemaker cell action potential

b) It has no slow diastolic depolarization

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) primarily functions to:

A) Increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction

B) Lower blood pressure by promoting natriuresis

C) Enhance platelet aggregation

D) Stimulate cardiac contractility

B) Lower blood pressure by promoting natriuresis

Weibel-Palade bodies, found in endothelial cells, are storage sites for:

A) Calcium ions

B) von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

C) Acetylcholine

D) Nitric oxide

B) von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

he role of von Willebrand Factor (vWF) in hemostasis is to:

A) Inhibit clot formation

B) Facilitate platelet adhesion and coagulation

C) Dilate blood vessels

D) Degrade fibrin

B) Facilitate platelet adhesion and coagulation

Gap junctions in cardiac muscle are critical for:

A) Mechanical strength of the heart

B) Electrical coupling between myocytes

C) Storage of neurotransmitters

D) Chemical signaling via hormones

B) Electrical coupling between myocytes

The heart's ability to generate action potentials:

A) Depends entirely on sympathetic input

B) Does not require neural input due to intrinsic pacemaker activity

C) Relies solely on parasympathetic stimulation

D) Is absent without hormonal influence

B) Does not require neural input due to intrinsic pacemaker activity

The resting membrane potential of the SA node is characterized as:

A) Stable at -70 mV

B) Unstable due to spontaneous depolarization

C) Hyperpolarized to -90 mV

D) Identical to ventricular myocytes

B) Unstable due to spontaneous depolarization

Slow Na+ influx in the SA node is mediated by:

A) Voltage-gated K+ channels

B) HCN (hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated) channels

C) L-type Ca2+ channels

D) Na+/K+ ATPase

B) HCN (hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated) channels

The primary cause of depolarization in the SA node is:

A) Na+ influx via HCN channels

B) Ca2+ influx through voltage-gated channels

C) K+ efflux

D) Cl- influx

B) Ca2+ influx through voltage-gated channels

Sympathetic innervation of the SA and AV nodes is characterized by:

A) Cholinergic neurons releasing acetylcholine

B) Adrenergic neurons releasing norepinephrine

C) Serotonergic neurons releasing serotonin

D) GABAergic neurons releasing GABA

B) Adrenergic neurons releasing norepinephrine

Sympathetic innervation of ventricular muscle modulates:

A) Heart rate only

B) Contractility via adrenergic stimulation

C) Electrical conduction speed only

D) Atrial depolarization

B) Contractility via adrenergic stimulation

Sympathetic nerves release which neurotransmitter to increase heart rate?

A) Acetylcholine

B) Norepinephrine

C) Dopamine

D) Serotonin

B) Norepinephrine

Parasympathetic nerve activation in the heart results in:

A) Increased heart rate

B) Slower depolarization rate in the SA node

C) Enhanced ventricular contractility

D) Vasoconstriction of coronary arteries

B) Slower depolarization rate in the SA node

The T wave on an ECG corresponds to

:A) Atrial depolarization

B) Ventricular depolarization

C) Ventricular repolarization

D) Atrial repolarization

C) Ventricular repolarization

Systole includes which of the following phases?

A) Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling

B) Isovolumetric contraction and ventricular ejection

C) Atrial contraction only

D) Ventricular repolarization only

B) Isovolumetric contraction and ventricular ejection

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is calculated as:

A) Systolic pressure + diastolic pressure

B) Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (pulse pressure

)C) Systolic pressure × heart rate

D) Cardiac output ÷ total peripheral resistance

B) Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (pulse pressure

A stenotic valve is best described as:

A) A widened valve increasing flow

B) A narrowed valve obstructing flow

C) A valve with increased elasticity

D) A valve unaffected by pressure changes

B) A narrowed valve obstructing flow

Normal cardiac output at rest in an adult is approximately:

A) 2 L/min

B) 5 L/min

C) 10 L/min

D) 15 L/min

B) 5 L/min

Chronotropy refers to:

A) Factors affecting blood pressure

B) Factors affecting heart rate

C) Factors affecting stroke volume

D) Factors affecting vessel diameter

B) Factors affecting heart rate

Stroke volume (SV) is calculated as:

A) End-diastolic volume (EDV) + End-systolic volume (ESV)

B) End-diastolic volume (EDV) - End-systolic volume (ESV)

C) Cardiac output × heart rate

D) Total blood volume ÷ cardiac output

B) End-diastolic volume (EDV) - End-systolic volume (ESV)

Inotropy refers to:

A) Factors affecting heart rate

B) Factors affecting contractility

C) Factors affecting blood volume

D) Factors affecting vessel tone

B) Factors affecting contractility

Altered contractility primarily affects:

A) End-diastolic volume (EDV) only

B) Stroke volume (SV) but not EDV

C) Heart rate only

D) Total peripheral resistance only

B) Stroke volume (SV) but not EDV

The total cross-sectional area of veins compared to arteries is approximately:

A) Equal

B) Twice as large

C) Four times as large

D) Half as large

C) Four times as large

Arteriolar response to the autonomic nervous system is mediated by:

A) Beta-2 adrenergic receptors

B) Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors

C) Muscarinic receptors

D) Nicotinic receptors

B) Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors

The most important factor in altering total peripheral resistance (TPR) is:

A) Blood viscosity

B) Vessel length

C) Diameter of arterioles

D) Venous pressure

C) Diameter of arterioles

The effect of norepinephrine (NE) on vessel tone includes:

A) Vasodilation of arterioles and veins

B) Vasoconstriction of arterioles and veins

C) Vasodilation of arterioles only

D) Vasoconstriction of veins only

B) Vasoconstriction of arterioles and veins

Chemoreceptors in the cardiovascular system primarily detect:

A) Changes in blood pressure

B) Changes in metabolic by-products (e.g., O2, CO2, pH)

C) Changes in blood volume

D) Changes in vessel diameter

B) Changes in metabolic by-products (e.g., O2, CO2, pH)

Platelets release which of the following as a potent vasoconstrictor?

A) Nitric oxide

B) Thromboxane A2

C) Prostacyclin

D) Histamine

B) Thromboxane A2

von Willebrand Factor (vWF) binds to which of the following during hemostasis?

A) Collagen, GPIb, and Factor VIII

B) GPIIb/IIIa and heparin only

C) Fibrinogen and thrombin

D) Prostacyclin and nitric oxide

A) Collagen, GPIb, and Factor VIII

Aspirin inhibits which enzyme to exert its antiplatelet effect?

A) Na+/K+ ATPase

B) Cyclooxygenase (COX)

C) Phospholipase A2

D) Thrombin

B) Cyclooxygenase (COX)

Fibrinolysis involves the conversion of:

A) Fibrinogen to fibrin

B) Plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin

C) Thrombin to prothrombin

D) Collagen to vWF

B) Plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin