UAMS P2 - PCol Exam 5 SG

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100 Terms

1
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Fluoroquinolones MOA

Bactericidal activity by inhibiting DNA synthesis, blocks Topo IV (gram +) and DNA gyrase (gram -)

2
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Cipro is active against:

A) MSSA

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Enterococcus faecium

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

3
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Levofloxacin is active against:

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B) Enterococcus facialis

C) Enterococcus faecium

D) C. Diff

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

4
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Moxifloxacin is active against:

A) MRSA

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Enterococcus faecium

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Streptococcus pneumoniae

(anaerobes)

5
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Which quinolone is primarily active against anaerobes?

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Moxifloxacin

C) Levofloxacin

D) Gemifloxacin

Moxifloxacin

6
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Levofloxacin is active against which organism?

A) MRSA

B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

C) Bacteroides fragilis

D) Enterococcus faecium

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

7
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Delafloxacin is active against which organism?

A) C. difficile

B) Acinetobacter Spp

C) MRSA

D) Enterococcus faecium

MRSA

(only quinolone for MRSA)

8
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ADE of Lomefloxacin (drug specific)

phototoxicity, QTc prolongation

9
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ADE of Sparfloxacin (drug specific)

phototoxicity, QTc prolongation

10
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ADE of Gatifloxacin (drug specific)

hypoglycemia

11
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ADE of Temafloxacin (drug specific)

immune hemolytic anemia

12
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ADE of Trovafloxacin (drug specific)

hepatotoxicity

13
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ADE of Grepafloxacin (drug specific)

cardiotoxicity - QTC prolongation

14
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ADE of Clinafloxacin (drug specific)

Phototoxicity

15
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Fluoroquinolone ADEs (6)

Gastrointestinal,

neurological (peripheral neuropathy),

musculoskeletal,

derm (phototoxicity),

CV (QT prolongation),

Endocrine (Hypo/hyperglycemia)

16
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Which Fluoroquinolone(s) SHOULDN'T be used for UTI?

Moxifloxacin

17
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Which Fluoroquinolone(s) active against community-acquired respiratory organisms?

Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin

18
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Which Fluoroquinolone(s) used in HAP/VAP?

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

19
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Which Fluoroquinolone(s) used in Prostitis?

Norfloxacin, Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin, Levofloxacin

20
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Which agent inhibits CYP1A2?

A) Levofloxacin

B) Moxifloxacin

C) Delafloxacin

D) Ciprofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin

21
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Which fluoroquinolone does NOT require renal dose adjustments?

A) Moxifloxacin

B) Delafloxacin

C) Ciprofloxacin

D) Levofloxacin

Moxifloxacin

22
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All are ADEs of Fluoroquinolones except:

A) Delirium

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Tendon rupture

D) Hyperglycemia

Hyperkalemia

23
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Which agent is most likely to increase effects of Warfarin?

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Moxifloxacin

C) Delafloxacin

D) Levofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin

24
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Which agent interacts with Divalent Cations?

A) ibuprofen

B) levothyroxine

C) norfloxacin

D) amoxicillin

Norfloxacin

(Fluoroquinolones interact with divalent cations)

25
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Oxazolidinones Drugs (2)

Tedizolid,

Linezolid

26
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Oxazolidinones best used against

Gram Positive Pathogens (MSSA, VRSA, VRE, MRSA, MRSE)

27
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Oxazolidinones MOA

Bacteriostatic, Binds to 50s ribosomal subunit, preventing protein synthesis

28
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Linezolid ADEs (drug-specific)

Myelosuppression

29
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Which agent inhibits MAO?

A) Tedizolid

B) Clarithromycin

C) Linezolid

D) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Linezolid

(not reported for Tedizolid)

30
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Which Oxymetazoline is not FDA approved for pneumonia use?

Tedizolid

31
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Which agent is effective against MRSA?

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Delafloxacin

C) Moxifloxacin

D) Levofloxacin

Delafloxacin

(MRSA is Gram +, cipro not effective)

32
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Which organism is Ciprofloxacin NOT effective against?

A) MSSA

B) H. Influenza

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Legionella

MSSA

(Cipro not effective against Gram + bacteria)

33
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Tetracycline MOA

Bacteriostatic, Reversibly binds to 30s subunit, blocks protein synthesis

34
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Which agent is active against CA-MRSA (community-acquired MRSA)?

A) Tigecycline and Doxycycline

B) Ervacycline and Tigecycline

C) Doxycycline and Minocycline

D) Sarecycline and Omadacycline

Doxycycline and Minocycline

35
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Which agent binds to 30s subunit to suppress protein synthesis?

A) SMX-TMP

B) Tigecycline

C) Clarithromycin

D) Clindamycin

Tigecycline

36
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Which agent binds to 50s subunit to suppress protein synthesis?

A) Azithromycin

B) Gentamicin

C) Tigecycline

D) Doxycycline

Azithromycin

37
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Which organism is Tigecycline NOT active against?

A) VRE

B) ESBL

C) M. pneumoniae

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

38
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Which organism is Ervacycline NOT active against?

A) C. perfringens

B) ESBL

C) M. pneumoniae

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

39
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Which organism is Omadacycline NOT active against?

A) C. perfringens

B) ESBL

C) M. pneumoniae

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

40
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Which agent is active against Parabacteroides distasonis (aka... Anaerobes)?

A) Tigecycline

B) Omadacycline

C) Doxycycline

D) Minocycline

Omadacycline

(new agents are active against Anaerobes)

41
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Which agent is active against VRE?

A) Tigecycline

B) Doxycycline

C) Minocycline

D) Omadacycline

Tigecycline and Omadacycline

(Tigecycline + new agents, omadacycline and eravacycline)

42
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Resistance of Tetracyclines Develops primarily by preventing accumulation of drug inside the cell either by ___________________ or ___________________

decreasing influx; increasing efflux

43
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Which agent requires renal dose adjustments?

A) Doxycycline

B) Ervacycline

C) Tetracycline

D) Tigecycline

Tetracycline

44
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Which agent inhibits P-gp?

A) Sarecycline

B) Ervacycline

C) Tetracycline

D) Tigecycline

Sarecycline

45
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ADEs of Tetracyclines

Teeth discoloration,

GI effects (N/V anorexia),

Phototoxicity,

Mortality

46
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Which agent is the drug of choice for ehrlichiosis?

A) Minocycline

B) Tetracycline

C) Tigecycline

D) Doxycycline

Doxycycline

47
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Tetracyclines for Drug-resistant organisms (MRSA, VRE, ESBL, and CRE)

Tigecycline,

Ervacycline,

Omadacycline

48
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MOA of Nitrofurantoin

bactericidal, forms reactive intermediates which alter ribosomal proteinsMOA of Nitrofurantoin

49
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Which organism is Nitrofurantoin active against?

A) C. Difficile

B) VRE

C) Burgella

D) MRSA

VRE

50
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Nitrofurantoin should not be used when CrCl < ____________

60 mL/min

51
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ADEs of Nitrofurantoin

Gastro (N/V/D),

Hypersensitivity,

CNS

52
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Which is considered first-line for UTIs?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Nitrofurantoin

C) Tetracycline

D) Linezolid

Nitrofurantoin

53
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Fosfomycin MOA

bactericidal, reversible attaches enolpyruvyl transferase (MurA), and blocks bacterial cell wall biosynthesis

54
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Which agent interferes with 1st step of bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A) Nitrofurantoin

B) Metronidazole

C) Fosfomycin

D) Vancomycin

Fosfomycin

55
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Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim is active against all EXCEPT:

A) CA-MRSA

B) Stenotrophamonas maltophilia

C) Pneumocystis jirovecii

D) Bacteroides fragilis

Bacteroides fragilis

56
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Which agent is more likely to produce a drug-interaction with linezolid?

A) Atorvastatin

B) Amitriptyline

C) Alprazolam

D) Amiodarone

Amitriptyline

57
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QTc Prolongation has NOT been reported with which agent?

A) Moxifloxacin

B) Doxycycline

C) Clarithromycin

Doxycycline

58
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Which is agent is NOT active vs CA-MRSA?

A) Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

B) Clindamycin

C) Clarithromycin

D) Doxycycline

Clarithromycin

59
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Azithromycin is NOT active against which organism?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Chlamydia spp

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Haemophilus influenza

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

60
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Fosfomycin is active against all EXCEPT

A) CRE

B) MRSA

C) Bacteroides fragilis

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Bacteroides fragilis

61
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Which should be avoided with Doxycycline?

A) Sertraline

B) Calcium

C) Atorvastatin

D) Potassium

Calcium

62
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Which is NOT active vs ESBL and CRE organisms?

A) Doxycycline

B) Ervacycline

C) Omadacycline

D) Tigecycline

Doxycycline

63
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Tigecycline is active against all EXCEPT:

A) MRSA

B) Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

64
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Clarithromycin is active against all EXCEPT:

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Haemophilus influenza

C) Bacteroides fragilis

D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Bacteroides fragilis

65
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Which common ADE is associated with Nitrofurantoin?

A) Nephrotoxicity

B) Acute pneumonitis

C) Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea

D) Neuropathy

Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea

66
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Which agent requires renal dose adjustments?

A) Minocycline

B) Doxycycline

C) Tigecycline

D) Ervacycline

Minocycline

67
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Sulfamethoxazole is an inhibitor of _____________

CYP2C9

68
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Trimethoprim is an inhibitor of _____________

CYP2C8 and OCT2

69
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Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim ADEs

GI,

Hematological,

Hyperkalemia,

Nephrotoxicity (Crystalluria),

Dermatological

70
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Which agent is contraindicated in 3rd trimester of Pregnancy?

A) Clindamycin

B) Azithromycin

C) Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

D) Doxycycline

Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

71
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Which agent interacts with antifolates?

A) Clindamycin

B) Azithromycin

C) Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

D) Doxycycline

Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

72
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Which agent is most likely active against Legionella?

A) Linezolid

B) Doxycycline

C) Imipenem-cilastatin

D) Gentamicin

Doxycycline

73
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Which is active against VRE?

A) Vancomycin

B) Linezolid

C) Amikacin

D) Azithromycin

Linezolid

74
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Which agent is LEAST likely to cover Bacteroides fragilis?

A) Meropenem

B) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate

C) Clindamycin

D) Clarithromycin

Clarithromycin

75
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Cipro is active against all EXCEPT:

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Mycoplasma spp.

C) E. coli

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Streptococcus pneumoniae

76
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A patient has an E. Coli UTI. Which is most appropriate?

A) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

B) Dicloxacillin

C) Moxifloxacin

D) Colistin

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

77
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A patient is diagnosed with an anaerobic lung infection. Which would be most appropriate?

A) Clindamycin

B) Tobramycin

C) Metronidazole

D) Daptomycin

Clindamycin

78
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Which agent is NOT active against CA-MRSA?

A) Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

B) Clindamycin

C) Azithromycin

D) Doxycycline

Azithromycin

79
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Which agent is active against Pneumocystis jirovecii?

A) Clarithromycin

B) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

C) Nitrofurantoin

D) Linezolid

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

80
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Clarithromycin is NOT active against:

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Chlamydia spp

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Haemophilus influenza

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

81
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Which agent is most active against Ehrlichia spp, rickettsia spp, and Borrelia spp (Tick-borne)?

A) Azithromycin

B) Doxycycline

C) Cefuroxime

D) Doripenem

Doxycycline

82
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Fosfomycin is active against all EXCEPT:

A) CRE

B) MRSA

C) Bacteroides fragilis

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Bacteroides fragilis

83
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Which agent inhibits CYP1A2?

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Levofloxacin

C) Clarithromycin

D) Azithromycin

Ciprofloxacin

84
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Tendon rupture has been reported with which class of antibiotics?

A) Aminoglycosides

B) Macrolides

C) Glycopeptides

D) Fluoroquinolones

Fluoroquinolones

85
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Which agents has strong inhibition of CYP3A4?

A) Erythromycin

B) Azithromycin

C) Linezolid

D) Clarithromycin

Erythromycin and Clarithromycin

(Azith does not inhibit... Linezolid inhibits MAO)

86
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Which agent has the highest risk of GI adverse effects?

A) Clarithromycin

B) Azithromycin

C) Erythromycin

Erythromycin

(Erythromycin>Clarithromycin>Azithromycin)

87
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Macrolides ADEs

QTc Prolongation,

GI effects (Erythromycin has highest),

Hepatotoxicity

88
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Which agent(s) requires Renal dose adjustments?

A) Azithromycin

B) Fidaxomicin

C) Erythromycin

D) Clarithromycin

Erythromycin and Clarithromycin

89
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Macrolide Resistance Mechanisms

Drug Efflux,

Ribosomal Protection,

Hydrolysis,

Mutations that alter 50s ribosomal protein

90
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Macrolide MOA

Bacteriostatic, inhibits 50s Subunit and blocks translocation step

91
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When first approaching an infected patient

Begin with EMPIRIC Therapy,

Then Targeted Therapy

Continue to Optimize Drug Therapy

92
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ISPSRPMD stands for

Indication

Source

Pathogen

Spectrum of Activity

Resistance Patterns

PK/PD

Monitoring

Duration of Therapy

93
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therapy used to treat a probable organism based on disease state (indication), patient risk factors, and local resistance rates

Empiric Therapy

94
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Gram positive stains

Purple

95
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Gram negative stains

red/pink

96
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Gram + or -:

Often seen in pairs, chains, or clusters

Gram positive

97
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Gram + or -:

Often seen in rods or bacilli

Gram negative

98
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4 Resistance patterns done by Bacterial Cells

Efflux pump,

Drug-inactivating enzyme,

altering cell wall/decrease porin production,

modified drug target

99
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Agents that are Bacteriostatic

Erythromycin (Macrolides)

Clindamycin (Lincosamides)

Sulfamethoxazole (Sulfonamides)

Trimethoprim

Tetracyclines

Chloramphenicol

(ECSTaTiC about Bacteriostatics)

100
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Agents that are Bacteriocidal

Vancomycin (Glycopeptides),

Fluoroquinolones

Penicillin (Beta-Lactams)

Aminoglycosides

Cephalosporins/Carbapenems

Metronidazole

(Very Finely Proficient At Cell Murder)