Soeffing Human Anatomy First Exam (Answers)

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The thoracic cavity is composed of subcompartment(s) including which of the following?

a. right pleural cavity
b. mediastinal cavity
c. left pleural cavity
d. Two of the above are subcompartments
e. All of the above are subcompartments

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1

The thoracic cavity is composed of subcompartment(s) including which of the following?

a. right pleural cavity
b. mediastinal cavity
c. left pleural cavity
d. Two of the above are subcompartments
e. All of the above are subcompartments

e. All of the above are subcompartments

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2

The abdominal cavity contains the following organs except the ______.

a. urinary bladder
b. gall bladder
c. pancreas
d. liver

a. urinary bladder

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3

Two major cavities are used in describing all of the cavities of the body. They are the ______.

a. abdominopelvic and throacic
b. pleural and mediastinum
c. superior and inferior
d. dorsal and ventral

d. dorsal and ventral

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4

The thoracopelvic cavity contains all of the internal organs.

a. true
b. false

b. false

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5

Superior to the hypogastric regions of the abdomen is (are) the ______ region(s).

a. epigastric
b. hypogastric
c. left and right iliac
d. umbilical

d. umbilical

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6

The tarsals are proximal on the lower appendage; whereas, the metatarsals are distal.

a. true
b. false

a. true

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7

A midsagittal plane ______.

a. transversely separates the body into relatively equal halves
b. longitudinally separates the body into relatively equal left and right halves
c. longitudinally separates the body into relatively equal anterior and posterior halves
d. longitudinally separates the body into dorsal and ventral portions

b. longitudinally separates the body into relatively equal left and right halves

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8

The organization and association of similar cells with a non-living intercellular substance is a ______.

a. cell
b. tissue
c. organ
d. organ system
e. organism

b. tissue

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9

A sagittal plane may separate the body into anterior and posterior portions as does a frontal plane; therefore these terms may be used synonymously.

a. true
b. false

b. false

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10

A lengthwise division of the head into anterior and posterior portions is referred to as a ______.

a. sagittal plane
b. coronal plane
c. transverse plane
d. median plane

b. coronal plane

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11

Which of the following terms describes the location of the pleural cavities with reference to the mediastinum?

a. anterior
b. lateral
c. posterior
d. superior
e. inferior

b. lateral

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12

One would not look in the mediastinum to find the ______.

a. trachea
b. heart
c. lungs
d. esophagus
e. All of the above are found in the mediastinum

c. lungs

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13

A synonym for anterior is ______.

a. caudal
b. cranial
c. dorsal
d. ventral

d. ventral

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14

When looking in the pelvic cavity, one would find the ______.

a. uterus
b. rectum
c. urinary bladder
d. Two of the above are found in the pelvic cavity
e. All of the above are found in the pelvic cavity

e. All of the above are found in the pelvic cavity

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15

The abdomen is subdivided into nine distinct regions by classical anatomists. The regions most superior and lateral are the ______.

a. right and left hypochondriac
b. right and left epigastric
c. right and left iliac
d. right and left hypogastric
e. right and left lumbar

a. right and left hypochondriac

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16

The ventral cavity includes the ______.

a. cranial cavity and spinal cavity
b. pleural cavities and mediastinum
c. Both selection a. and b. are correct
d. None of the above are correct

b. pleural cavities and mediastinum

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17

A synonym for the chest cavity is the ______.

a. ventral cavity
b. thoracic cavity
c. pleural cavity
d. peritoneal cavity
e. mediastinum

b. thoracic cavity

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18

The radius and ulna would be found in the brachium.

a. true
b. false

b. false

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19

Which of the following terms is not used to define the physical barrier separating the cell from its surroundings?

a. cell membrane
b. plasma membrane
c. cytoplasmic membrane
d. plasmalemma
e. Two of the above are used to define the physical barrier
f. All of the above are used to define the physical barrier

f. All of the above are used to define the physical barrier

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20

Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotic cell membrane?

a. physical barrier
b. selective transport into and out of the cell
c. production of energy
d. sensitivity to external environment

c. production of energy

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21

Flagella typically move cells through a fluid medium. What typically moves a fluid medium past the cell?

a. flagella
b. microvilli
c. cilia
d. cristae

c. cilia

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22

Which of the following is not a function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

a. synthetic activities
b. internal distribution of substances
c. production of ATP
d. regulation of material passage between cytoplasm and the cisternae

c. production of ATP

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23

Cytokinesis typically coincides with ______ of mitosis (karyokinesis).

a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. telophase

d. telophase

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24

The study of normal tissues is the study of ______.

a. cytology
b. histology
c. pathology
d. gross anatomy

b. histology

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25

Which of the following would not be included as one of the four basic tissue types?

a. epithelial tissue
b. connective tissue
c. nervous tissue
d. integumental tissue

d. integumental tissue

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26

Epithelia perform all of the following functions except they do not ______.

a. provide systematic communications
b. provide physical protection
c. produce specialized secretions
d. control permeability

a. provide systematic communications

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27

Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue?

a. bone
b. transitional
c. vascular
d. adipose
e. areolar

c. vascular

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28

The epidermis is principally derived from the ______.

a. endoderm
b. mesoderm
c. ectoderm
d. echinoderm
e. lubriderm

c. ectoderm

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29

The tissue type that has cells derived from all three germ layer is ______.

a. epithelium
b. connective tissue
c. areolar
d. nervous tissue
e. adipose

a. epithelium

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30

The deepest layer of the epidermis is called the ______.

a. stratum corneum
b. stratum granulosum
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum germinativum

d. stratum germinativum

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31

The stratum granulosum of the palms and soles is immediately and superficially covered by the ______.

a. stratum corneum
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum lucidum
d. stratum germinativum
e. stratum basale

c. stratum lucidum

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32

The ______ produce and control the dispersal of pigments that give the skin its characteristic color.

a. basal cells
b. cytochromophils
c. melanocytes
d. keratinocytes

c. melanocytes

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33

Muscles in the dermis that produce the sensation known as goose bumps in a response to fear, rage or cold (sympathetic stimulation) are the ______.

a. arrector pili
b. levator labii superioris
c. depressor labii superioris
d. orbicular oris

a. arrector pili

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34

The myofibers of the skeletal muscle system are derived from the ______.

a. endoderm
b. ectoderm
c. mesoderm
d. three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm)

c. mesoderm

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35

The connective tissues of the body are predominately derived from the ______.

a. endoderm
b. ectoderm
c. mesoderm
d. three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm)

c. mesoderm

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36

The glandular epithelium of the integumentary system is derived from the ectoderm. From which germ layer would the glandular epithelium of the gastroenteric tract be derived?

a. endoderm
b. ectoderm
c. mesoderm
d. three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm)

a. endoderm

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37

Bone is connected to bone by ______.

a. fascia
b. ligaments
c. tendons
d. aponeuroses

b. ligaments

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38

The cells that comprise bone tissue are called ______.

a. chondrocytes
b. fibrocytes
c. osteocytes
d. neurons
e. More than one of the above are correct

c. osteocytes

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39

The "young/germinal/bud" cells that continue to differentiate into a particular connective tissue from mesenchyme may be called ______.

a. chondroblasts
b. fibroblasts
c. osteoblasts
d. neuroglia
e. More than one of the above are correct

e. More than one of the above are correct

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40

The formed elements of the circulating vascular tissues include ______.

a. erythrocytes
b. leukocytes
c. megakaryocytes
d. plasma
e. thrombocytes
f. Two of the above are correct
g. More than one of the above are correct
h. All of the above are correct

g. More than one of the above are correct

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41

Components of the intercelluar matrix that give tensile strength to a tissue are ______ fibers.

a. collagen
b. reticular
c. elastic
d. hyaline

a. collagen

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42

Neurons are responsible for conducting electrochemical signals in systematic communications while neuroglial cells are supportive/accessory cells.

a. true
b. false

a. true

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43

All of the facial bones articulate with one keystone, which is the ______.

a. maxilla
b. ethmoid
c. hyoid
d. sphenoid
e. None of the above are correct

a. maxilla

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44

The zygomatic arch is composed of complete bone, the processes of two cranial bones and the process of one facial bone. Those bones, in the aformentioned order, are the ______.

a. temporal, frontal maxilla and sphenoid
b. temporal, frontal, parietal and zygomatic (malar)
c. zygomatic (malar), maxilla, sphenoid and frontal
d. zygomatic (malar), frontal, temporal and maxilla
e. None of the above are correct

d. zygomatic (malar), frontal, temporal and maxilla

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45

Which of the following are cranial bones?

a. ethmoid and sphenoid
b. temporal and occipital
c. frontal and vomer
d. Both items a and b above are correct
e. Both items a and c above are correct
d. All of the above are correct

d. Both items a and b above are correct

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46

A part of the axial skeleton, the U-shaped bone does not articulate with any other bone, it is the ______.

a. vomer
b. xiphoid
c. epistopheus
d. hyoid
e. dens

d. hyoid

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47

The vertebral column consists of ______.

a. eight cervical vertebrae
b. five lumbar vertebrae
c. twelve thoracic vertebrae
d. Two of the above are correct
e. All of the above are correct

d. Two of the above are correct

(b. five lumbar vertebrae & c. twelve thoracic vertebrae)

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48

The vertebrae which have foramen in each transverse process, generally short bifurcated spinous processes, and large triangular spinal foramina are ______.

a. cervical vertebrae
b. thoracic vertebrae
c. lumbar vertebrae
d. sacral vertebrae
e. More than one of the above are correct

a. cervical vertebrae

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49

Two bones, the clavicle and scapula, compose the pectoral girdle (shoulder). This girdle forms only one joint with the axial skeleton at the acromioclavicular joint on the anterior surface of the body.

a. true
b. false

b. false

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50

The following is (are) a component(s) of the axial skeletal system:

a. scapula
b. clavicle
c. malleus
d. Two of the above are components of the axial skeletal system
e. All of the above are components of the axial skeletal system

c. malleus

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51

The superior ten pairs of ribs are called true ribs and directly articulate with the sternum by costal cartilages; the two most inferior pairs of rib are false ribs and do not articulate with the sternum at all, these are also called floating ribs.

a. true
b. false

b. false

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52

The ankle of the foot consists of the tarsals; whereas, the digits exclusively consist of metatarsals.

a. true
b. false

b. false

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53

The talus (a tarsal) articulates with the distal processes of two long bones which form a box into which the talus fits. The two bones and their associated processes are the ______.

a. medial and lateral styloid processes of the radius and ulna, respectively
b. medial and lateral malleolus of the tibia and fibula, respectively
c. medial and lateral styloid processes of the tibia and fibula, respectively
d. medial and lateral epicondyle of the radius and ulna, respectively

b. medial and lateral malleolus of the tibia and fibula, respectively

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54

The pelvic girdle is composed of which of the following?

AA. Ischium BB. Ilium CC. Pubis DD. Sacrum
EE. Patella FF. Femur GG. Lumbar vertebrae HH. Coccyx

a. AA, BB and CC
b. AA, BB, CC and DD
c. AA, BB, CC, DD and HH
d. AA, BB, CC, DD, GG and HH

b. AA, BB, CC and DD

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55

The os coxae (AKA os innominatum or coxal bone) consists of the ______ fused together at a joint (fossa) known as the acetabulum.

a. ilium and ischium
b. ischium and coccyx
c. ilium and coccyx
d. ilium, ischium and pubis
e. ilium, ischium and coccyx
f. ischium, ilium and sacrum

d. ilium, ischium and pubis

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56

The humerus articulates with the proximal processes of two long bones which form hinge and rotational joints. The two distal long bones and their associated processes are the ______.

a. medial and lateral styloid processes of the radius and ulna, respectively
b. olecranon and coranoid processes of the ulna and radius, respectively
c. capitulum and trochlea of the radius and ulna, respectively
d. head and trochlear notch (fossa) of the radius and ulna, respectively

d. head and trochlear notch (fossa) of the radius and ulna, respectively

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57

The facial bones experience a much greater rate of expansive growth than the cranial bones during childhood development.

a. true
b. false

a. true

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58

The integrity of the knee joint is maintained by which of the following components (include all components found in the knee joint)?

a. medial and lateral meniscus
b. medial and lateral cruciate ligaments
c. ligamentum teres
d. Two of the above are correct
e. All of the above are correct

a. medial and lateral meniscus

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59

The pubic symphysis is a synovial joint with limited mobility and high stability.

a. true
b. false

b. false

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60

The integrity of the glenohumeral joint is maintained by which of the following components (include all components found in this joint)?

a. labrum
b. ligamentum teres
c. tibial and fibular collateral ligaments
d. Two of the above are correct
e. All of the above are correct

a. labrum

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