Pharmaceutical Regulation & Quality Management – Comprehensive Review

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These 103 question-and-answer flashcards cover regulatory pathways, GMP/GDP/GCP requirements, quality-management principles, clinical-trial roles, risk management, cleanroom classifications, data integrity, and other critical concepts discussed in the lecture notes.

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102 Terms

1
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What is Scientific Advice as it pertains to the drug life-cycle?

Early or ongoing guidance from regulators (e.g., EMA) on study design, endpoints, and regulatory expectations to reduce marketing-authorisation failure risk.

2
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Define Good Distribution Practice (GDP).

A quality system ensuring medicines are stored, transported, and handled under conditions that preserve their quality and integrity throughout the supply chain.

3
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Which regulatory body authorises products via the centralised procedure?

The European Medicines Agency (EMA).

4
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What is the Centralised Authorisation Process?

An EMA-managed procedure allowing one EU-wide marketing-authorisation application that yields a single approval valid in all EU/EEA states; mandatory for certain innovative medicines.

5
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Define Parallel Importation within the EU.

Importing a medicine authorised in one EU country into another without the original manufacturer’s involvement, provided the product is essentially the same.

6
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List three attributes of the Centralised Authorisation Procedure.

Single EU application/evaluation, one authorisation valid in all EU/EEA states, mandatory for specified innovative/high-risk medicines (managed by EMA, approved by EC).

7
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Who regulates medicinal products in Ireland and give three responsibilities.

HPRA; grants marketing authorisations, performs inspections, and monitors safety (pharmacovigilance).

8
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List three responsibilities of the Marketing Authorisation Holder (MAH).

Ensure product quality/safety, maintain pharmacovigilance, submit PSURs and variations.

9
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Give two responsibilities of the Qualified Person (QP).

Certify each batch meets GMP and MA, review all manufacturing/quality documentation before release.

10
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Who is the Responsible Person (RP) and list three responsibilities.

GDP-designated individual who ensures GDP compliance, manages the quality system/traceability, and handles recalls/complaints.

11
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What are the four categories of ICH guidelines?

Quality (Q), Safety (S), Efficacy (E), Multidisciplinary (M).

12
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Define Validation in the pharmaceutical industry.

Documented evidence that a process, procedure, or system consistently produces a product meeting predetermined specifications and quality attributes.

13
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State three main objectives of an Operational Qualification (OQ).

Verify equipment functions across its operating range, confirm performance under simulated production, identify/document critical parameters.

14
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List three reasons for performing an Installation Qualification (IQ).

Ensure equipment is installed per design, confirm correct utility connections, document materials/components used.

15
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What is the difference between a record and a report?

A record is raw data evidence (e.g., batch record); a report interprets/summarises information (e.g., deviation report).

16
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Define Critical Quality Attribute (CQA).

A physical, chemical, biological, or microbiological property that must be within specified limits to ensure product quality, safety, and efficacy.

17
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What are the GAMP guidelines?

Good Automated Manufacturing Practice: a risk-based, life-cycle approach for validating automated systems in pharma manufacturing.

18
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List key considerations for an effective internal audit programme.

Trained independent auditors, risk-based planning, timely follow-up, and clear documentation/reporting.

19
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Describe the role of Change Control in a QMS.

Ensures all changes to facilities, systems, equipment, or documents are reviewed, justified, approved, and implemented in a controlled way.

20
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When must a deviation be recorded in the QMS?

Whenever there is a planned or unplanned departure from approved processes, procedures, or specifications.

21
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Define Quality Risk Management (QRM).

Systematic process to assess, control, communicate, and review risks to product quality throughout the lifecycle.

22
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Name the three criteria used to evaluate risk in a risk assessment.

Severity, Probability, Detectability.

23
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List the three objectives of ICH Q10 (Pharmaceutical Quality System).

Product realisation, state of control, continual improvement.

24
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What is an Investigational Medicinal Product (IMP)?

Any pharmaceutical form of an active substance or placebo used in a clinical trial, including authorised products used differently or for new indications.

25
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Define Good Clinical Practice (GCP).

International ethical and scientific quality standard for designing, conducting, recording, and reporting clinical trials to protect participants.

26
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Explain Informed Consent.

Process whereby participants voluntarily agree to join a study after full disclosure of its nature, risks, benefits, and their rights.

27
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What is a double-blind clinical trial?

A study in which neither participants nor investigators know who receives the investigational product versus placebo, minimising bias.

28
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Who are the main stakeholders in a clinical trial?

Sponsor, Investigator, Ethics Committee, Regulatory Authority.

29
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Role of the ethics committee in a clinical trial.

Protect participants’ rights, safety, and well-being by reviewing protocols, consent forms, and monitoring compliance.

30
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Explain the investigator’s role in clinical trials.

Conduct the study at site, obtain informed consent, ensure protocol compliance, and safeguard subject safety.

31
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What is the Summary of Product Characteristics (SmPC)?

Regulatory document for healthcare professionals detailing a medicine’s properties, indications, dosage, contraindications, and side effects.

32
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List three items a Package Leaflet must contain in the EEA.

Medicine name/strength, usage and dosage instructions, possible side effects (plus storage info, etc.).

33
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Define Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API).

The active substance in a medicine responsible for its therapeutic effect, produced chemically or biologically.

34
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What is meant by Active Substance?

Interchangeable with API; the biologically active component responsible for a medicine’s intended effect.

35
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Outline activities requiring an Active Substance Registration.

Manufacture, import, or distribution of an active substance; supplying it to medicinal-product manufacturers; ensuring GMP compliance and documentation.

36
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Which activities occur in a Grade A cleanroom?

High-risk aseptic operations such as sterile filling and open handling of sterile components.

37
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List the four cleanroom grades per Annex 1.

Grade A, Grade B, Grade C, Grade D.

38
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What is primary packaging? Give an example.

Material directly contacting the product, e.g., a blister pack or an injection vial.

39
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Name two tests on plastic primary-packaging containers.

Extractables & leachables testing; moisture-barrier/permeability testing.

40
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What is the temperature range for cold-storage goods?

2 °C to 8 °C.

41
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Define the acronym ALCOA (or ALCOA++).

Attributable, Legible, Contemporaneous, Original, Accurate (+ Complete, Consistent, Enduring, Available for ALCOA++).

42
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Define Data Integrity and outline ALCOA++ principles.

Assurance that data are complete, consistent, and accurate; ALCOA++ guides documentation to maintain integrity (Attributable, Legible, etc.).

43
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List three requirements for using electronic signatures.

Uniquely assigned to one person, secure against misuse, linked to records so alterations are detectable.

44
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Purpose of the EudraGMDP database.

EU database listing manufacturing/distribution authorisations and GMP/GDP certificates to enable compliance verification and transparency.

45
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Give three reasons why regulation is important in pharmaceuticals.

Ensure safety/efficacy, protect public health, maintain high manufacturing standards (also supports trust and trade).

46
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Identify the two types of documentation used in pharma.

Records (raw data) and Reports (summaries/evaluations).

47
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What is the National Authorisation process for medicinal products?

Country-specific application to a national authority (e.g., HPRA); approval valid only in that country.

48
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List the four EU variation categories.

Type IA, Type IAIN, Type IB, Type II.

49
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Describe Change Control in a pharmaceutical QMS.

Formal system to assess, approve, and implement changes without compromising product quality.

50
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Typical activities in a Grade D cleanroom.

Less critical tasks like solution preparation, component staging, or support for higher-grade areas.

51
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Difference between Type IA and Type IAIN variations; give examples and required documents.

Type IA: minor, low-risk (e.g., QP address change); Type IAIN: minor but immediate notification needed (e.g., new packaging site). Docs: cover letter, variation form, supporting data (updated SmPC/GMP certs).

52
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What is meant by the benefit-to-risk ratio?

Comparison of a medicine’s therapeutic benefits to its potential risks; must be positive for approval.

53
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Describe Class 1 recall requirements per HPRA.

Serious health risk; immediate product withdrawal and urgent communication to healthcare professionals.

54
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Restate the definition of Validation in pharma.

Documented evidence that a process, system, or equipment consistently yields results meeting predetermined criteria, ensuring quality and compliance.

55
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Differentiate between a record and a report; give one example each.

Record = raw data (e.g., temperature log); Report = analysis/summary (e.g., deviation investigation report).

56
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What are the three categories of ATMPs?

Gene therapy, Somatic-cell therapy, Tissue-engineered products.

57
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State two compliance criteria for cleanroom grades A–D (Annex 1).

Airborne particulate limits and microbial contamination thresholds (also pressure differentials, air-change rates).

58
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Restate the temperature range for refrigerated goods.

2 °C to 8 °C.

59
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Restate: What is primary packaging? Give an example.

Material in direct contact with product, e.g., tablet blister pack.

60
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Name two tests that may be performed on plastic primary packaging.

Compatibility testing; extractables & leachables studies.

61
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Define Active Substance (refresh).

Biologically active component intended for disease diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention.

62
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What are the GAMP guidelines (refresh)?

Risk-based validation framework for automated pharma systems across their life-cycle.

63
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Define Critical Quality Attribute (CQA) (refresh).

A property that must stay within limits to ensure desired product quality (e.g., pH, sterility).

64
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Define a cleanroom in pharmaceutical manufacturing.

Controlled environment minimising particulate/microbial contamination through filtered air, garments, and controlled access.

65
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Purpose of Post-Authorisation Safety Studies (PASS).

Monitor a medicine’s real-world safety, identify risks not seen in trials, and reassess benefit–risk balance.

66
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Define Corrective Action and Preventative Action.

CA: eliminate causes of identified non-conformity; PA: eliminate causes of potential non-conformity to prevent occurrence.

67
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List two studies on plastic immediate packaging.

Extractables & leachables; barrier/permeability testing.

68
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List three HPRA responsibilities.

Grant marketing authorisations, perform GMP/GDP/GCP inspections, monitor adverse events (pharmacovigilance).

69
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What is a Type II variation? Give an example.

Major change possibly affecting quality/safety/efficacy, e.g., adding a new therapeutic indication; requires full evaluation.

70
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Explain accelerated stability testing.

Exposes products to elevated conditions to predict shelf life and storage needs faster than real-time studies.

71
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List three responsibilities of the Responsible Person (RP).

Ensure GDP-compliant storage/distribution, maintain QMS, approve returns and manage recalls.

72
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Explain the Benefit-to-Risk ratio (refresh).

Assessment of therapeutic benefits versus potential risks; must favour benefits for product approval.

73
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Define Pharmacovigilance.

Science and activities of detecting, assessing, understanding, and preventing adverse effects or other medicine-related problems.

74
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List the four cleanroom grades per Annex 1 starting with the cleanest.

Grade A, Grade B, Grade C, Grade D.

75
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List three responsibilities of the MAH (refresh).

Maintain product quality/safety, uphold pharmacovigilance, submit variations/renewals.

76
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What is the National Approval process for medicinal products?

Application to a single national authority; approval limited to that country.

77
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Identify three approaches to cleaning verification.

Swab sampling, rinse sampling, visual inspection (also marker compounds).

78
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State the three objectives of ICH Q10 (refresh).

Product realisation, state of control, continual improvement.

79
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Define Validation (refresh).

Documented process giving high assurance a system/process consistently meets specifications and quality attributes.

80
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Who regulates medicines in Ireland and give three responsibilities (refresh).

HPRA; grants authorisations, approves/inspects clinical trials, monitors safety via pharmacovigilance, conducts GMP/GDP/GCP inspections.

81
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Define Parallel Importation (refresh).

Import/sale of a medicine authorised in one EU state into another without the original manufacturer, relying on mutual MA recognition.

82
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Give three main objectives of an Operational Qualification (OQ) (refresh).

Verify equipment operates within limits, confirm critical components, test alarms/sensors/controls.

83
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Key considerations for effective self-inspection/internal audit.

Planned systematic audits, independent/qualified auditors, corrective actions leading to improvement, risk-based frequency/scope.

84
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Purpose of the EudraGMDP database (refresh).

Provides EU-wide visibility of GMP/GDP certificates and manufacturing/distribution licences for compliance checks.

85
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Describe the SmPC (refresh).

Detailed regulatory document outlining a medicine’s properties, indications, dosage, contraindications, interactions, storage, etc.

86
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Give three mandatory Package Leaflet items for EEA medicines.

Product/active-substance name, indication & dosage, warnings/side effects (plus storage instructions, etc.).

87
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List two tests on plastic primary-packaging containers (refresh).

Extractables & leachables; compatibility or moisture-barrier testing.

88
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Scope of EudraLex Volume 4 Annex 1.

GMP guidelines for sterile product manufacture, including cleanroom classifications and contamination-control strategies.

89
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Give two responsibilities of an EU Qualified Person (QP).

Certify each batch before release; ensure manufacturing complies with GMP and the marketing authorisation.

90
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Role of the ethics committee in a clinical trial (refresh).

Review/approve protocols and consent forms to protect participant rights, safety, and well-being.

91
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Define Informed Consent in a clinical trial (refresh).

Process of providing all study details so participants can voluntarily decide to join.

92
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Differences between Type IA and Type IAIN variations; give two examples and documentation.

IA: minor, no immediate notice (e.g., admin update); IAIN: minor but immediate notice (e.g., QP change). Docs: application, revised annexes, justification.

93
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Activities requiring an Active Substance Registration (refresh).

Manufacture, import, or supply of active substances; major process changes; ensuring GMP documentation.

94
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List requirements to conduct a clinical trial in Ireland.

HPRA approval, ethics approval, suitable investigator/site, GCP compliance, insurance/indemnity.

95
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Gowning requirements for operators entering Grade B or A areas.

Sterile coveralls, hood, face mask, goggles, sterile (double) gloves, sterile footwear; gowning performed in controlled steps.

96
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Define ALCOA for data integrity.

Attributable, Legible, Contemporaneous, Original, Accurate.

97
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Give two attributes of the new Clinical Trial Regulation 536/2014.

Centralised EU submission portal; increased transparency/public access to trial data (also single decision per member state).

98
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What is an Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) (refresh)?

Biologically active component providing therapeutic effect, later combined with excipients into the final dosage form.

99
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Define a double-blind clinical trial (refresh).

Study where neither investigators nor participants know treatment allocation, reducing assessment bias.

100
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What is an Investigational Medicinal Product (IMP) (refresh)?

Active substance or placebo used in a clinical trial, including authorised products used in new ways.