NSCA CSCS EXAM

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382 Terms

1
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Which of the following substances regulates muscle actions?

potassium

calcium

troponin

tropomyosin

calcium

2
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Which of the following substances acts at the NMJ to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit?

acetylcholine

ATP

creatine phosphate

serotonin

acetylcholine

3
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When throwing a baseball, an athlete's arm is rapidly stretched just before throwing the ball. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity?

golgi tendon organ

muscle spindle

extrafusal muscle

pacinian corpuscle

muscle spindle

4
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From which of the following is the heart's electrical impulse normally initiated?

AV node

SA node

the brain

the sympathetic nervous system

SA node

5
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Which of the following occurs during the QRS complex of a typical ECG?

1. depolarization of the atrium

2. repolarization of the atrium

3. repolarization of the ventricle

4. depolarization of the ventricle

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

b. 2 and 4 only

6
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Which of the following is the definition of power?

mass x acceleration

force x distance

force x velocity

torque x time

force x velocity

7
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To compare performances of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's

body weight

body weight squared

lean body weight

body weight to the two-thirds power

body weight to the two-thirds power

8
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During a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following?

1. perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint

2. joint angle

3. movement acceleration

4. movement velocity squared

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

a. 1 and 2 only (perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint AND joint angle)

9
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A vertical jump involves knee, hip, and shoulder movement primarily in which of the following anatomical planes?

sagittal

perpendicular

frontal

transverse

sagittal

10
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An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of lever occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise?

1. 1st class

2. 2nd class

3. 3rd class

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

11
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Which of the following substances can be metabolized anaerobically?

glycerol

glucose

amino acids

free fatty acids

glucose

12
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Which of the following reactions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)?

ATP = ADP + Pi + H+

pyruvate + NADH = lactate + NAD+

ADP + creatine phosphate = ATP + creatine

fructose-6-phosphate = fructose-1,6-biphosphate

ATP = ADP + Pi + H+

13
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Which of the following energy systems produces ATP at the quickest rate?

phosphagen

aerobic glycolysis

fat oxidation

fast glycolysis

phosphagen

14
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Approximately how many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one molecule?

27

34

38

41

38

15
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Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations?

creatine phosphate

glycogen

water

ATP

ATP

16
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After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body EXCEPT

amount of physiological stress

metabolic demands of exercise

type of physiological stress

energy expended

energy expended

17
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Which of the following hormones enhance(s) muscle tissue growth?

1. growth hormone

2. cortisol

3. IGF-1

4. progesterone

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

a. 1 and 3 only

18
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Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone?

increase lipolysis

decrease collagen synthesis

increase amino acid transport

decrease glucose regulation

decrease collagen synthesis

19
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Which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural change?

growth hormone

testosterone

cortisol

IGF

testosterone

20
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What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session?

a. 30s rest, high volume, 3 sets

b. 30s rest, low volume, 1 set

c. 3 min rest, high volume, 1 set

d. 3 min rest, low volume, 3 sets

a. 30s rest, high volume, 3 sets

21
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Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of

1. increased agonist muscle recruitment

2. muscle hypertrophy

3. improved firing rate

4. greater synchronization

a. all of the above

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 1, 3, and 4 only

d. 1, 3, and 4 only

22
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When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment?

I

IIa

IIx

IIc

I

23
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Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations?

stagnation and a decrease in performance

hormonal disturbances

sleep disturbances

increased levels of fatigue

sleep disturbances

24
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Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus?

total fat mass

fast-twitch fiber CSA

slow-twitch fiber CSA

total Type I muscle fiber content

fast-twitch fiber CSA

25
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Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would NOT be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise?

transition from Type IIx to Type IIa muscle fiber

increased pennation angle in certain muscle groups

reduced SR and T-tubule density

elevated NA-K ATPase activity

reduced SR and T-tubule density

26
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In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density (BMD) levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport?

16 year old gymnast with a seven-year training history in her sport

a 23 year old offensive lineman who has lifted weights for eight-years

a 22 year old track cyclist who has a 1RM of 352lbs

a 19 year old 800m freestyle swimmer with one year of dryland training

a 19 year old 800m freestyle swimmer with one year of dryland training

27
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A 17 year old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscles during that time?

increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes

hyperplasia of Type II fibers

transformation from Type I to Type II fibers

hypertrophy of Type 1 fibers

hypertrophy of Type I fibers

28
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The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the

cardiac output

a-v O2 difference

heart rate

stroke volume

stroke volume

29
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Which of the following does NOT normally increase during an aerobic exercise session?

end-diastolic volume

cardiac contractility

cardiac output

diastolic blood pressure

diastolic blood pressure

30
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The mean arterial pressure is defines as the

average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle

average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures

average systolic blood pressure during exericse

average of blood pressure and heart rate

average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle

31
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Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following?

1. increased maximal oxygen uptake

2. decreased blood lactate concentration

3. increased running economy

4. decreased capillary density

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

32
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An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six-month resistance training program. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for this gain?

increased number of muscle fibers

enhanced cross-sectional area

greater muscle density

improved neuromuscular functioning

improved neuromuscular functioning

33
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Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following EXCEPT the

diaphysis

epiphyseal plate

joint surface

apophyseal insertion

diaphysis

34
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The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called

sarcopenia

osteopenia

osteoporosis

scoliosis

osteoporosis

35
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Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when one is designing a training program for a 68-year-old competitive tennis player?

cardiovascular fitness

lower body strength

balance and agility

medical history

medical history

36
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Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be at increased risk for developing injuries to the

back

knee

wrist

neck

knee

37
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An Olympic weightlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise?

selective attention

somatic anxiety

guided discovery

self-efficacy

selective attention

38
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An athlete's desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of

motive to avoid failure

autogenic training

selective attention

achievement motivation

achievement motivation

39
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For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of

negative reinforcement

positive reinforcement

negative punishment

positive punishment

positive reinforcement

40
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How does an athlete's optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity?

increases

decreases

no effect

not related to activity

decreases

41
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In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration?

practice push press without any equipment, progress to practice with PVC pipe, end with unloaded bar

practice dip, following by dip with drive, and end with practice of entire push press

practice dip, the drive, and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press

practice the dip and the drive independently, followed by practice of dip with drive; then practice the catch independently and end with practice of entire push press

practice dip, the drive, and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press

42
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Maintaining adequate glycogen stores

spares use of protein for energy

improves maximum power

decreases endurance performance

helps athletes gain weight

spares use of protein for energy

43
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Which of the following BEST explains the need for increased protein intake for athletes?

decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise

increased need for tissue repair

restriction of calories to lose weight

quality of protein consumed

increased need for tissue repair

44
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The following is the most likely contributor to fatigue and poor performance

low protein intake

iron deficiency

low calcium intake

omega-3 fatty acid deficiency

iron deficiency

45
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Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids?

reduce complex CHO intake

limit saturated fatty acid intake to 30% of total calories

consume a minimum of 500mg of dietary cholesterol per day

replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids

replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids

46
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Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities?

poultry

eggs

lentils

beef

lentils

47
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The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the precompetition meal is

fat

carbohydrate

protein

vitamin

carbohydrate

48
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Which of the following makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure?

resting metabolic rate

physical activity energy expenditure

thermic effect of food

resting blood sugar levels

resting metabolic rate

49
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Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

normal body weight

very low dietary intake

preoccupation with food

secretive eating

preoccupation with food

50
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When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should

monitor the athlete's dietary food intake

require frequent weigh-ins

encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist

provide nutritional information

encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist

51
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To maintain hydration during a competition lasting less than 1 hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3-8 ounces of water or a sports drink about every

15 minutes

30 minutes

60 minutes

2 hours

15 minutes

52
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Which of the following dietary supplements is (are) considered a stimulant?

1. creatine

2. caffeine

3. HMB

4. citrus aurantium

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 4

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 3

b. 2 and 4 (caffeine and citrus aurantium)

53
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Which of the following is NOT part of caffeine's role in improving athletic performance?

increased power production

decreased glycogen depletion

increased fat oxidation

decreased urine production

decreased urine production

54
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Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use?

hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease

may cause unregulated increase in RBC production

resistance to infectious disease may be impaired

may reduce ability of blood to carry oxygen

may cause unregulared increase in RBC production

55
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Creatine supplementation improves all of the following variables EXCEPT

lean body mass

maximal strength

endurance performance

power

endurance performance

56
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Which of the following performance-enhancing substances is most likely to increase LBM?

anabolic steroids

arginine

ephedrine

Beta-alanine

anabolic steroids

57
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A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power?

vertical jump

1RM bench press

5RM squat

100m (109-yard) sprint

vertical jump

58
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When measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results?

1. using multiple tests

2. retesting at a different time of day

3. an athlete's inexperience with tested exercise

4. using established testing protocol

a. 1 and 3

b. 1 and 4

c. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 3, and 4

1, 2, and 3: using multiple tests, retesting at a different time of day, an athletes inexperience with tested exercise

59
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All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's CV fitness in the heat EXCEPT

performing the test in an indoor facility

using salt tablets to retain water

scheduling test in the morning

drinking fluids during the test

using salt tablets to retain water

60
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The bench press, vertical jump, and 10m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions?

quarterback

defensive back

wide receiver

defensive lineman

defensive lineman

61
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Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results?

1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile run, 1 RM bench press

T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile run

1.5 mile run, 1RM bench press, T-test, 1RM power clean

1RM bench press, 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile run

T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile run

62
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Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting

less than 10s

30-90s

2-3 min

longer than 5

30-90s

63
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Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximum muscular power?

Margaria-Kalamen test

vertical jump

40-yd (37m) sprint

1RM power clean

40-yd (37m) sprint

64
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Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test?

1. hamstrings

2. erector spinae

3. lumbar spine

4. hip flexors

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

a. 1 and 3 only

65
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Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified?

touching the base of cone D

shuffling from cone C to cone D

crossing the feet from cone B to cone C

running forward from cone A to cone B

crossing the feet from cone B to cone C

66
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When compiling results from the volleyball team's vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is more appropriate for this group?

mean

median

mode

variance

median

67
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Which of the following is a non-temperature-related effect of a warm up?

enhanced neural function

disruption of transient connective tissue bonds

elevation of baseline oxygen consumption

increase in muscle temperature

elevation of baseline oxygen consumption

68
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When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the

stretched muscle by contracting the reciprocal muscle

reciprocal muscle by contracting the stretched muscle

reciprocal muscle by its own contraction

stretched muscle by its own contraction

stretched muscle by its own contraction

69
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Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation?

dynamic

ballistic

static

passive

static

70
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Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a

relaxation of GTOs

relaxation of the stretched muscle

contraction of the stretched muscle

contraction of the reciprocal muscle

contraction of the stretched muscle

71
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After performing the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility?

1. autogenic inhibition

2. stretch inhibition

3. reciprocal inhibition

4. crossed-extensor inhibition

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

a. 1 and 3 only

autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition

72
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Which of the following exercises requires a spotter?

lat pulldown

wrist curl

power clean

step-up

step-up

73
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During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's forearms near the wrists?

bench press

incline DB bench press

upright row

lying barbell triceps extension

incline DB bench press

74
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Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift exercise?

1. overhand

2. closed

3. open

4. alternated

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 4 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 4 only

overhand, closed, alternated

75
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Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise?

a. step up left foot, step up right foot, step down left foot, step down right foot

b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot

c. step up left foot, step down left foot, step up right foot, step down right foot

d. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down right foot, step down left foot

b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot

76
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The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is

hip flexion

hip extension

knee flexion

dorsiflexion

hip extension

77
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If during the tire flip the athlete's hips rise faster than the shoulders during the initial pushing motion, what is an effective correction to give the athlete?

start with higher hip position

keep the hips slightly below the shoulders in this position

lift the tire upward instead of driving it forward

push with the arms first

start with higher hip position

78
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If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen?

a bilateral facilitation will occur

a bilateral deficit will be developed

a reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur

only unilateral strength will increase

a bilateral facilitation will occur

79
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With regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied?

with untrained athletes who are relatively weak

in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury

with trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and power

with untrained athletes who are new to the exercise

in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury

80
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Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods?

to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises

to minimize force application throughout the full ROM

to increase the time spent decelerating during a lifting motion

to keep the applied resistance constant during changes in joint angle

to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises

81
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Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than ___ of what can be achieved in stable condition.

20%

50%

70%

90%

70%

82
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The basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance exercises are MOST specific to this goal?

1. power clean

2. leg (knee curl)

3. front squat

4. seated calf (heel) raise

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

a. 1 and 3 only

power clean and front squat

83
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The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team's resistance training frequency be altered?

increase frequency to improve muscular endurance

do not change frequency and add plyometrics

decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice

design a split routine with 3 days on and one day off

decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice

84
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An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance?

back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl, power clean

power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl

leg (knee) curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled

hip sled, power clean, leg (knee) curl, back squat

power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl

85
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Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST?

5 sets x 5 reps

1 x 5

5 x 15

1 x 15

5 sets x 5 reps

86
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A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using 3 sets x 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will MAXIMIZE her goal?

3 mins

1.5 mins

45s

30s

30s

87
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Which of the following is NOT a phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

amortization

concentric

eccentric

isometric

isometric

88
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Which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex?

GTO

muscle spindle

extrafusal muscle fiber

Pacinian corpuscle

muscle spindle

89
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Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program?

1. balance

2. strength

3. training history

4. lean body mass

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

balance, strength, training history, LBM

90
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Which of the following types of plyometric drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense?

jumps in place

bounds

depth jumps

box jumps

depth jumps

91
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Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training workout?

1:5

1:4

1:3

1:2

1:5

92
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What does the term impulse refer to?

the relationship between power and velocity

the relationship between acceleration and velocity

the relationship between force and velocity

the relationship between force and time

the relationship between force and time

93
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Elite sprinters produce ________ forces in a ________ ground contact time as compared to their novice counterparts.

larger, longer

similar, shorter

larger, shorter

smaller, longer

larger, shorter

94
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In upright sprinting, an athlete's stride length is largely dependent on ______

the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase

the athlete's flexibility

the athlete's stride rate

the amount of horizontal force produced during the toe-off of the stance phase

the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase

95
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Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following?

change of direction

maneuverability

agility

acceleration

agility

96
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Select the aspect of training that requires additional emphasis when the aim is to improve change-of-direction ability.

strength

eccentric strength

reactive strength

rate of force development

eccentric strength

97
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Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance training program?

1. increased oxygen delivery to working tissues

2. higher rate of aerobic energy production

3. greater utilization of fat as a fuel source

4. increased disturbance of the acid-base balance

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 2, 3, and 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

increased oxygen delivery to working tissues

higher rate of aerobic energy production

greater utilization of fat as a fuel source

98
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Which of the following types of training loads is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold?

pace/tempo

interval

HIIT

Farlek

pace/tempo

99
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Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity?

oxygen consumption

heart rate

RPE

race pace

heart rate

100
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The loss of physiological adaptations upon the cessation of training is an example of

specificity of training

cross-training

detraining

tapering

detraining