Di Imaging Exam 3

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106 Terms

1
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What hormones and nutrients stimulate bone production?

GH

Thyroid

Calcitonin

Vit D and C

2
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What hormones inhibit bone pdt?

PTH

Cortisol

3
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An allencompassing definition for increased radiolucency of bone is ?

osteopenia

4
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What is the MC etiology of osteopenia?

osteoporosis

5
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What % change of bone is needed to show osteopenia?

30-50%

6
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After what age does bone mass decrease?

35 years of age

7
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What happens to hip fracture occurance in women after 60?

risk of fractures double every 5 years

8
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What are the primary causes of osteopenia?

senile

postmenopausal

9
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Endocrine causes of decreased bone are called ?

osteopenia

10
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What is the appearance of old compression fractures on MRI?

white

11
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A gradual loss of skeletal mass seen with advancing age is known as ?

senile osteoporosis

12
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Increased bone loss seen in women following menopause is known as ?

postmenopausal osteoporosis

13
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What decade of life does the gradual loss of skeletal mass begin in women?

fourth decade

14
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What are some signs of osteoporosis?

pain

loss of height/ compression fractures

accentuated kyphosis

15
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What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

female

>70

caucasian or asian

early onset of menopause

inactivity

16
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What are modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis?

smoking

alcohol abuse

excessive caffeine

excessive dietary protein

lack of calcium

lack of sunlight

17
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What are radiographic features of osteopenia?

pencil-thin cortices

resorption of trabeculae

accentuated vertical struts

altered vertebral shape

18
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What are 3 causes of patholgical fracture? 1 additional for child?

osteoporosis/penia

lytic mets

multiple myeloma

EG-child

19
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What is the appearnace of a compression fractured vertebra?

fish vertebrae

20
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If you see one vertebra with decreased trabeculation, you would call this a ?

hemangioma

21
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An excentuated kyphosis due to compression fractures is known as ?

Dowager's hump

22
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When is a CT needed for compression fractures?

if compression exceeds 30% of the original body height

23
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A fracture of the vertebra where the posterior body is convex is called ?

burst fracture

24
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What happens to the peduncular distance with a burst fracture?

widens

25
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A flat vertebra is called?

vertebra plana

26
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What do steroids do to bone?

decrease bone leading to osteopenia

27
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A fracture of ? or ? vertebra is stable

anterior or posterior

28
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What type of vertebral fracture is unstable?

middle or multiple sections

29
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What is the appearance of osteoporosis in an extremity?

thinned cortices

endosteal scalloping

loss of trabeculae

risk of fractures

30
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How can you look for osteopenia in the hip?

Ward's triangle

31
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What is the pattern of loss for WArd's triangle?

loss from medial to lateral

32
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What are the lesions of multiple myeloma?

punch out

33
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How does T-score correlate to fracture risk?

every -1 SD = double the fracture risk

34
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-1 SD= what % bone lost

10%

35
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What is the T score for osteopenia?

2.5 to 1

36
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What is the T score for osteoporosis?

2.5

37
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What are the recs for osteopenia?

exercise

calcium, protein, Vit C

No smoking

No drinking

38
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What can cause regional osteoporosis?

immobilization and disuse

reflex sympathetic dystrophy

39
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What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome?

acute pain, regional osteoporosis following trivial trauma

>50

trophic skin changes

40
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Who is transient osteoporosis of the hip seen in?

young to middle aged adults (maybe pregnancy)

MC in males

41
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Which hip is involved in transient osteoporosis of the hip in men? women?

Men- bilateral

women- left

42
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What is needed to make the diagnosis of transient osteoporosis of the hip?

MRI

43
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What are the 2 main causes of osteomalacia?

Vitamin D metabolism

renal tubular phosphate loss

44
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What is the name for childhood osteomalacia?

Rickets

45
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What are the radiographic features of osteomalacia?

osteopenia

coearsened trabeculation

Looser zones

deformities

basilar invagination

acetabular protrusion

46
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Which side of the bone are Looser lines found on?

concave side

47
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What are the radiographic features of Rickets?

widened, bulky physeal plates and irregularity

splaying of the metaphysis and physis

Bowing

rachitic rosary

paintbrush metaphysis

48
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What causes scurvy?

long term deficiency of Vitamin C

49
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What are the manifestations of scurvy?

petechiae, bleeding gums, hematuria

low serum ascorbic acid levels

osteopenic bones

50
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What are the radiological features of scurvy?

osteopenia

dense zone of provisional calcification

beak-like metaphyseal outgrowths

radiodense sclerosis around epiphysis

scorbutic zone

corner sign

51
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Ring epiphysis of scurvy is called?

Wimberger sign

52
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What are the primary causes of HPT?

parathyroid gland adenoma

53
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What is the MC cause of hypercalcemia?

HPT

54
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Secondary HPT is a complication of ?

chronic renal disease

55
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Teritary HPT is seen in ?

dialysis pt

56
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Who MC has HPT?

30-50 yr women

57
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What is the saying for HPT?

stones, bones, abdominal groans, psychiatric moans

58
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What are the radiologic features of HPT?

osteopenia

subperiosteal resorption

distal tuft resorption

accentuated trabeculation

brown tumors

soft tissue calcification

59
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What is the most definitive radiographic sign of HPT?

subperiosteal resorption

60
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What are the joints MC affected by subperiosteal resorption of HPT?

radial margins of middle and proximal phalanges of 2nd and 3rd digits

61
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What are the diff di for resorption of the distal clavicle?

HPT

RA

osteolytis

AS

Scleroderma

62
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What doe HPT of the spine look like?

rugger jersey spine

63
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What does HPT of the skull look like?

salt-and-pepper

64
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Which disorder do we see Rugger jersey spine with?

HPT

65
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T/F wide SI are also seen with HPT

true

66
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A bone disorder occurring when the kidneys fail to maintain proper levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood affecting patients on dialysis is known as ?

renal osteodystrophy

67
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Your patient has sacroilitis with rugger jersey spine and has had a kidney transplant. What would the diagnosis be?

renal osteodystrophy

68
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? account for 10% of neoplasms within cranium

pituitary tumors

69
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What are the symptoms of pituitary tumors?

headaches

visual disturbances

discomfort in extremities

70
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What are the measurements of an enlarged sella?

16 x 12

71
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What is the significance of an enlarged sella?

empty

tumor

normal

aneurysm

72
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In an adult oversecretion of GH is known as ?

acromegaly

73
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What is the appearance of someone with acromegaly?

large hands and feet

74
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What is the name for someone with excess growth hormone as a child?

gigitism

75
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What are those with GH disorders predisposed to?

DJD

76
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What are the signs of acromegaly?

soft tissue thickening

coarse facial features

enlarged jaw, hands, feet, head

spreading teeth

macroglossia

prominent forehead

enlarged sella

77
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What are radiographic features of acromegaly?

spade=like distal tufts

hooking osteophytes of distal tuffs

78
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What should the measurement of heel pad thickness be?

<23mm

79
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A disease caused by increased production of cortisol is called ?

hypercortisolism

80
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What cause hypercortisolism?

MC exogenous corticosteroid admin

Cushings

81
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What are signs and symptoms of cushing?

obesity

moon face

accelerated hair growth

buffalo hump

purple striae

vert and rib fx

82
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What are radiographic features of cushing?

osteopenia

compression fx

AVN

atherosclerotic plaquing

83
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What is the MC congenital dwarfing skeletal dysplasia?

achondroplasia

84
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T/F achondroplasia is associated with a normal life expectancy

true

85
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What is the appearance of the hands in someone with achondroplasia?

trident hands

86
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What can happen to the spinal canal in someone with achondroplasia?

narrowing

87
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What is the look of the pelvis in someone with achondroplasia?

narrow pelvic inlet aka champagne glass

88
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What happens to the bone metaphysis in someone with achondroplasia?

metaphyseal cupping

89
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What does a trident hand appearance mean?

fingers are of approximately equal length and diverge from one another in 2 pairs

90
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What are some radiographic features of the spine of someone that has achondroplasia?

posterior body scalloping

short pedicles decreasing caudally

bullet vertebrae

horizontal sacrum

91
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What are the features of the skull in someone with achondroplasia?

macrocephaly

frontal bossing

foramen magnum stenosis

arnold-chiari malformation

92
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What type of gait does someone with achonroplasia havve?

waddling

93
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You take images of your patient and see hypoplasia of the clavicles and an increased number of wormian bones. What is the diagnosis?

cleidocranial dysplasia

94
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Along with absent clavicles, what may happen with cleidocranial dysplasia?

widened pubic symphysis and other midline deficits

95
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What is the appearance of someone with Marfans?

tall, arachnodactyly

96
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What are some major concerns that could affect someone with Marfan's?

heart valve defects, aortic aneurysm, lens dislocation

97
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What is the test to do if you suspect your patient might have Marfans?

positive thumb sign

positive wrist sign

98
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What may the chest look like in someone with Marfans?

pectus excavatum

99
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What are the 4 major clinical criteria of oseogenesis imperfecta?

skeletal fragility

blue sclera

abnormal dentition

premature otosclerosis

100
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What are the radiographic findings associated with osteogenesis imperfecta?

osteopenia

bowed long bones

thin cortex

multiple fractures