Gynaecology – Comprehensive Review (Workbook 2024-25)

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A comprehensive set of 150 question-and-answer flashcards covering embryology, anatomy, menstrual physiology, reproductive endocrinology, AUB, amenorrhoea, puberty disorders, PCOS, menopause, infertility, tubal disease, genital TB, uterine/peritoneal disorders, Müllerian anomalies, cervical screening, oncology basics, ovarian masses, benign & infectious vulvovaginal conditions, pelvic organ prolapse, urinary incontinence, fertility control and emergency contraception.

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151 Terms

1
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From which embryologic structure does the uterus develop?

The Müllerian (paramesonephric) ducts

2
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What is the MAIN support of the uterus?

The pelvic diaphragm (levator ani) together with the cardinal, uterosacral and pubocervical ligaments

3
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Which ligament maintains anteversion and ante-flexion of the uterus?

The round ligament (assisted by the uterosacral ligament)

4
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What type of epithelium lines the endocervix and uterine cavity?

Simple columnar epithelium

5
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What type of epithelium lines the ectocervix?

Stratified squamous epithelium

6
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The uterine artery is a branch of which major vessel?

The internal iliac (hypogastric) artery

7
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The fallopian tube is lined by which type of epithelium?

Ciliated columnar epithelium

8
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What is the narrowest part of the fallopian tube?

The intramural (interstitial) portion

9
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Where is routine tubal ligation usually performed?

At the isthmus of the tube

10
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Most common site of tubal ectopic pregnancy?

The ampulla

11
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Which ligament attaches the ovary to the uterus?

The ovarian ligament (proper ligament of ovary)

12
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What does the infundibulopelvic (suspensory) ligament contain?

The ovarian artery and vein

13
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Normal vaginal pH is maintained by lactobacilli at what range?

pH 3.5 – 4.5

14
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Predominant vaginal smear cell under estrogen?

Superficial cells (pink, pyknotic nuclei)

15
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Predominant vaginal smear cell under progesterone?

Intermediate cells (blue, larger nuclei)

16
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Bartholin glands open at which clock positions?

5 o’clock and 7 o’clock positions of the vestibule

17
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Clitoris is derived embryologically from the

Genital tubercle (homologue of the penis)

18
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Standard fixative for a conventional Pap smear?

95 % ethyl alcohol

19
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Most common carcinoma detected by ectocervical Pap specimen?

Squamous cell carcinoma (about 75 %)

20
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Most common carcinoma detected by endocervical Pap specimen?

Adenocarcinoma (about 25 %)

21
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What solution is applied to the cervix during colposcopy to highlight dysplasia?

3–5 % acetic acid

22
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Green filter on a colposcope helps visualize what?

Abnormal cervical blood vessels

23
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Indication for endocervical curettage during colposcopy?

Abnormal cytology such as HSIL or AGUS when squamocolumnar junction is not fully visible

24
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LEEP is considered what type of test?

Both diagnostic and therapeutic for CIN 2/3

25
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Ideal intra-uterine pressure for diagnostic hysteroscopy?

50–70 mm Hg (keep < 100 mm Hg)

26
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Preferred distension medium when using monopolar cautery in hysteroscopy?

Non-electrolyte solutions (glycine or sorbitol) with fluid-deficit limit 1 L

27
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Investigation of choice (IOC) for tubal patency?

Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)

28
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Methylene-blue dye test for tubal block is performed during which procedure?

Laparoscopy with chromopertubation

29
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FSH stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete which hormone?

Estrogen (from granulosa cells)

30
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LH directly stimulates theca interna cells to produce

Androgens (converted to estrogens by aromatase)

31
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Which structure secretes progesterone in the luteal phase?

Corpus luteum

32
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Normal life span of the corpus luteum (non-pregnant)?

About 14 days

33
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Secretory endometrium on histology shows

Subnuclear vacuolation and cork-screw glands (under progesterone)

34
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Proliferative endometrium is characterized by

Tall pseudostratified glands (‘telescope’ appearance) under estrogen

35
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Most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) in adolescents & perimenopausal women?

Anovulation

36
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First diagnostic step in secondary amenorrhoea?

Exclude pregnancy with β-hCG

37
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Definition of primary amenorrhoea (no secondary sexual traits)?

No menses by age 13 without secondary sexual development

38
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Most common cause of primary amenorrhoea with breasts present + uterus absent?

Müllerian agenesis (MRKH syndrome)

39
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Typical karyotype in complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS)?

46, XY

40
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Turner syndrome karyotype?

45, XO

41
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Kallmann syndrome hall-mark beside amenorrhoea?

Anosmia due to GnRH deficiency

42
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First visible sign of puberty in girls?

Breast budding (thelarche, Tanner stage 2)

43
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Management drug of choice for central precocious puberty?

Continuous GnRH agonist therapy

44
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McCune-Albright syndrome precocious puberty is treated with?

Aromatase inhibitors (block estrogen synthesis)

45
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Main hormone driving peripheral conversion to DHT in hirsutism?

Androgens (particularly testosterone) converted to DHT

46
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Scoring system for clinical hirsutism assessment?

Ferriman–Gallwey score (> 8 abnormal)

47
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Screening test for congenital adrenal hyperplasia in hirsutism work-up?

Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone (> 200 ng/dL suggest CAH)

48
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Testosterone < 150 ng/dL in hirsute woman suggests?

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

49
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First-line long-term pharmacologic therapy for hirsutism in PCOS?

Combined oral contraceptive pills

50
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Diagnostic criteria for PCOS (Rotterdam) require how many of 3 features?

At least two of the three criteria

51
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In PCOS, which gonadotropin is typically elevated?

LH (with normal FSH) resulting in high LH : FSH ratio

52
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Most increased estrogen form in PCOS?

Estrone (E1) from peripheral aromatization in adipose tissue

53
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Drug of choice for ovulation induction in PCOS?

Letrozole (aromatase inhibitor)

54
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Menopause is diagnosed after how long without menses?

12 consecutive months

55
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Most common menopausal symptom?

Hot flashes (vasomotor instability)

56
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Absolute age cut-off defining premature menopause?

Before age 40

57
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First-line drug class for postmenopausal osteoporosis?

Bisphosphonates (plus vitamin D/calcium)

58
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Infertility is failure to conceive after how long in women < 35 y?

12 months of unprotected intercourse

59
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Most common cause of male infertility?

Primary testicular (spermatogenic) failure

60
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Ideal abstinence period before semen analysis?

About 2 days (range 2-7 days)

61
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Asthenozoospermia refers to

Reduced sperm motility

62
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First-line treatment when sperm count < 15 million/mL?

Intrauterine insemination (IUI)

63
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Serum FSH day 3 value > 10 IU/L indicates?

Diminished ovarian reserve

64
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Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) < 1 ng/mL suggests?

Poor ovarian reserve

65
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Gold-standard test for tubal evaluation?

Laparoscopy with chromopertubation

66
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Most common site of genital tuberculosis involvement?

Fallopian tube (ampulla)

67
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Recommended management of hydrosalpinx before IVF?

Salpingectomy (improves IVF success)

68
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Which fibroid subtype is most associated with infertility?

Submucosal fibroids (types 0, 1, 2)

69
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Treatment of asymptomatic submucosal fibroid in infertile woman?

Hysteroscopic myomectomy

70
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Most common presentation of Asherman syndrome?

Secondary amenorrhoea or hypomenorrhoea

71
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Investigation of choice for endometriosis?

Diagnostic laparoscopy

72
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First-line fertility therapy in mild endometriosis?

Clomiphene citrate (or letrozole) + IUI

73
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Adenomyosis classical ultrasound sign?

'Venetian blind' appearance with heterogeneous myometrium

74
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Definitive treatment of adenomyosis in women who have completed child-bearing?

Total hysterectomy

75
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Uterine didelphys results from failure of

Complete fusion of Müllerian ducts

76
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Angle between horns on HSG in bicornuate uterus is typically

60° (wide angle)

77
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Most common Müllerian anomaly overall?

Septate uterus

78
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Definitive treatment for septate uterus?

Hysteroscopic metroplasty / septal resection

79
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Prenatal DES exposure causes which uterine malformation?

T-shaped uterus

80
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High-risk oncogenic HPV types for cervical cancer?

HPV 16 and 18 (others include 31, 33, 45 etc.)

81
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Target age group for routine HPV vaccination?

9–14 years (ideally before sexual debut)

82
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Best screening test for cervical pre-cancer?

High-risk HPV DNA testing

83
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Start and stop ages for cervical screening in low-resource WHO protocol?

Start 30 y, stop 50 y (every 5 y HPV test)

84
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Most common clinical symptom of cervical cancer?

Irregular or post-coital bleeding

85
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FIGO stage at which hydronephrosis appears?

Stage III (involving pelvic side wall)

86
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Most common cause of post-menopausal bleeding?

Endometrial atrophy

87
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Endometrial thickness on TVS warranting biopsy (> menopause)?

4 mm

88
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Drug class increasing risk of endometrial carcinoma?

Tamoxifen (SERM)

89
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Gene commonly mutated in Type I (endometrioid) endometrial cancer

PTEN

90
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Gene associated with Type II serous endometrial cancer

p53

91
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Treatment of atypical endometrial hyperplasia when fertility desired?

High-dose progestins (e.g., LNG-IUS or oral MPA)

92
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Most common functional ovarian cyst in reproductive age?

Follicular cyst

93
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Theca-lutein cysts are stimulated by high levels of

β-hCG (e.g., molar pregnancy)

94
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Best predictor of malignancy on ovarian ultrasound?

Solid components with papillary projections, thick septae, ascites, high vascularity

95
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Serum marker for epithelial ovarian cancer (especially serous)?

CA-125

96
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Marker elevated in dysgerminoma?

LDH (± β-hCG, PLAP)

97
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Characteristic cell pattern in yolk-sac tumour?

Schiller-Duval bodies

98
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Dermoid cyst other name?

Mature cystic teratoma

99
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Meigs syndrome triad?

Ovarian fibroma + ascites + pleural effusion

100
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Percentage of ovarian cancers that are familial?

≈ 10 %