MB1 M6

A. An ultimate assay

This determines the percentage of a single, specific chemical constituent present in a crude drug, such as atropine. This assay is _______________. A. An ultimate assay C. A biological assay B. A proximate assay D. A limit test

A. Equivalence point and endpoint are synonymous terms

Which of the following is true about titration? A. Equivalence point and endpoint are synonymous terms B. The titrand is the substance being titrated C. The titrant is the reagent of known concentration D. The endpoint is an approximation of the equivalence point

B. I, II, and IV

Common types of reactions used in titrimetric analyses are: I. Acid-base reactions III. Nephelometry II. Complex-forming reactions IV. Neutralization A. I and II C. I and IV B. I, II, and IV D. I, II, III, IV

A. Phenolphthalein

The indicator used when a weak acid is titrated with a strong base: A. Phenolphthalein C. Methyl Orange B. Bromocresol Blue D. Methyl Red

C. No indicator will give a sharp end point

Why should a weak alkali should never be titrated with a weak acid or vice versa? A. It will cause an error in the result of the experiment B. It may be titrated, however, only phenolphthalein may be used as indicator C. No indicator will give a sharp end point D. It may be titrated, however, only methyl orange may be used as indicator

B. The analysis of bases using an accurately measured volume of acid.

Which of the following statements correctly describes acidimetry? A. The analysis of acids using an accurately measured volume of base B. The analysis of bases using an accurately measured volume of acid. C. It cannot be employed in residual titrations. D. Standard titrants used are sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide

D. KMnO4 acts as a self-indicator

True about permanganometry: A. Potassium permanganate is a strong reducing agent B. Primary standard is sodium tartrate C. It requires HCl to prevent formation of manganese dioxide D. KMnO4 acts as a self-indicator

A. I, II, and IV

Residual titration methods: I. Zinc Oxide III. Hydrogen Peroxide II. Milk of Magnesia IV. Volhard’s Method A. I, II, and IV C. I, II, III, IV B. I, II, and III D. IV only

B. Uses Starch TS as indicator

True about both iodimetry and iodometry: A. Analysis of reducing agents B. Uses Starch TS as indicator C. The end point is the appearance of pink color D. Iodine is used as the volumetric standard

A. Dichlorofluorescein

The indicator used in Fajans Method. A. Dichlorofluorescein C. Potassium Chromate B. Ferric Alum D. Potassium Dichromate

C. I and IV only

The following methods do not require indicators: I. Gay-Lussac Method III. Fajans Method II. Volhard Method IV. Liebig Method A. I only C. I and IV only B. IV only D. II and III only

D. There is no aluminum present in Ferric Alum

Which of the following statements is correct? A. Mohr’s salt is an indicator for the Volhard Method B. Mohr’s salt refers to Ferric Ammonium Sulfate C. Mohr’s salt is also known as Ferric Alum D. There is no aluminum present in Ferric Alum

C. Nitrobenzene

This is added to form a film over precipitated silver chloride particles in Volhard titration methods. A. Benzopyrene C. Nitrobenzene B. Thiocyanate D. Benzaldehyde

B. II and III

Which of the following agents can be used to mask the presence of Cu? I. Triethanolamine III. Thioglycols II. Potassium cyanide IV. Ammonium fluoride A. I and II C. I and IV B. II and III D. II and IV

A. Less than 0.05%

What is the percentage limit of the moisture content in nonaqueous titrimetry? A. Less than 0.05% C. Less than 0.01% B. Not more than 0.1% D. Less than or equal to 0.5%

A. Stationary phase is non-polar, mobile phase is polar

In reverse-phase chromatography: A. Stationary phase is non-polar, mobile phase is polar B. Stationary phase is non-polar, mobile phase is non-polar C. They are both non-polar D. They are both polar

B. 2.97 cm

Based on the values below, what is the distance traveled by the solute?

A. 0.17 cm C. 2.18 cm B. 2.97 cm D. 10.11 cm

B. Cellulose

The crude fiber content of a drug is the residue, consisting chiefly of this substance. A. Extract C. Glycogen B. Cellulose D. Starch

D. I and III

These can be assayed through flame photometry. I. Sodium III. Potassium II. Riboflavin IV. Thiamine A. I and II C. II and IV B. I, II, and III D. I and III

A. Rat

The animal employed in the assay of oxytocin. A. Rat C. Rabbit B. Pigeon D. Cat

C. Arylamino group

Diazotization is used for the assay of drugs with this substituent. A. Amide group C. Arylamino group B. Hydroxyl group D. Imino group

A. Arginine Rationale: Protamine = pirate -> arginine = arrr

Protamine sulfate is strongly basic due to the high content of this amino acid. A. Arginine C. Proline B. Asparagine D. Methionine

A. Koettstorfer number / B. Saponification value

This is the number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the free acids and saponify the esters contained in 1 g of fat. A. Koettstorfer number B. Saponification value C. Hydroxyl Value D. Acetyl Value

B. Hübl: Iodine mercuric chloride

Which of the following pairs is correct? A. Wijs: Iodine monobromide B. Hübl: Iodine mercuric chloride C. Wijs: Iodine mercuric chloride D. Hanuš: Iodine monochloride

D. Longer the wavelengths = lower frequency

True about waves: A. The crest is the lowest point of a wave B. Shorter wavelengths = lower frequency C. The trough is the highest point of a wave D. Longer the wavelengths = lower frequency

D. Specificity

The ability of an analytical method to explicitly assess the analyte in the presence of other components in a sample. A. Linearity C. Accuracy B. Robustness D. Specificity

D. Low accuracy, high precision

Satoru requires 3 grams of uji matcha. However, he did not use a scale and ended up preparing varying measurements. Evaluate the values presented: 4.90 g, 4.88 g, 4.86 g, 4.87 g. A. High accuracy, high precision B. Low accuracy, low precision C. High accuracy, low precision D. Low accuracy, high precision

B. Reproducibility

An experiment conducted by person Y at laboratory A yielded precise results. If the results remain consistent after being performed at laboratory B by person Z, what would this imply? A. Repeatability C. Robustness B. Reproducibility D. Specificity

B. Nephelometry

Which of the following methods measure the amount of light scattered by a suspension? A. Spectrophotometry C . Turbidimetry B. Nephelometry D. Fluorimetry

B. Inversely proportional

Which statement describes the relationship between the power of the transmitted radiant beam and the thickness of the solution in Beer and Lambert’s laws? A. Directly proportional B. Inversely proportional C. Cannot determine D. Depends on the given chemical species

B. Halogens

The following choices are examples of chromophores, except: A. Aldehydes C. Ketones B. Halogens D. Organic Acids

A. I, II, III, IV

True about Quality Control: I. Has a reactive approach II. Identifies quality defects III. Ensures identity and purity of the product through testing IV. Goal is to identify quality defects after development of product A. I, II, III, IV C. II and III B. I only D. III and IV

B. Beryllium

Which of the following choices would emit the least amount of light in Flame Emission Spectroscopy? A. Sodium C. Calcium B. Beryllium D. Lithium

A. 185 to 780 nm

The range of the UV-Vis region. A. 185 to 780 nm C. 380 to 780 nm B. 185 to 380 nm D. 185 to 3000 nm

D. Sodium dichromate, water, and sulfuric acid

A solution for cleaning volumetric apparatus. A. Hot water B. Purified water C. Sodium chromate, water, and hydrochloric acid D. Sodium dichromate, water, and sulfuric acid

C. 1000 mL

The USP Limit for the volume of injections in single-dose packaging. A. 30 mL C. 1000 mL B. 50 mL D. 100 mL

D. Nystatin: Bacillus subtilis

Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. Vitamin B3: Lactobacillus plantarum B. Penicillin G: Staphylococcus aureus C. Chloramphenicol: Escherichia coli D. Nystatin: Bacillus subtilis

B. Albino mice

The test organism for systemic injection tests: A. Healthy rabbit C. Albino rabbit B. Albino mice D. Mammalian cell culture

B. Fail. Acceptance Criteria: NMT 1%

After testing 10 tablets in a friabilator, the initial weight of 3.02 g dropped to 2.98 g, equating to 1.32% friability. Determine if the batch of tablets passes or fails. A. Pass. Acceptance Criteria: NMT 2.0% B. Fail. Acceptance Criteria: NMT 1% C. Pass. Acceptance Criteria: NMT 1.5% D. Fail. Acceptance Criteria: NMT 0.5%

D. I, II, and III

The following instruments are used in measuring bulk density: I. Graduated Cylinder II. Volumeter III. Vessel A. I only C. I and III only B. I and II only D. I, II, and III

B. Methylene Blue

The dye solution used in the Leak Test for ampules. A. Methyl Orange C. Bromocresol Blue B. Methylene Blue D. Gentian Violet

C. Potentiometry

Used in the determination of pH: A. Voltammetry C. Potentiometry B. Polarography D. Chromatography

A. Statement I is true

Alpha error refers to setting an expiration date too early. An alpha error may be more unsafe than a beta error. A. Statement I is true C. Both statements are true B. Statement II is true D. Both statements are incorrect

C. 550-700°C

The temperature range of dull red heat: A. 500-550°C C. 550-700°C B. 800-1000°C D. 1200-1600°C

A. Paddle Over Disk

Which of the following is a USP Dissolution Apparatus used for Transdermal Patches? A. Paddle Over Disk C. Reciprocating Cylinder B. Flow Through Cell D. Basket Apparatus

A. 2-3 kg

The hardness range (in kilograms) of chewable tablets using Stokes-Monsanto Tester: A. 2-3 kg C. 8-10 kg B. 4 kg D. 4-10 kg

D. I, II, III, and IV

The Cassia flask is used in what assay/s? I. Assay of Clove Oil II. Assay of Caraway Oil III. Assay for Aldehyde Content IV. Assay for Ketone Content A. I and II only C. I, II, and IV only B. III and IV only D. I, II, III, and IV

D. Add a seed crystal from a similar substance to induce crystal formation

Your laboratory partner tries to initiate crystallization of a solution they are working on. What can be an alternative to scratching the side of the glass with a stirring rod if this still fails to induce crystal formation? A. Add more reactants to create more products B. Advise them to start a new experiment C. Boil the solution until crystals form D. Add a seed crystal from a similar substance to induce crystal formation

A. Random

A pharmacist weighs the same sample five times under the same conditions. The recorded weights are 2.501 g, 2.503 g, 2.500 g, 2.502 g, and 2.501 g. The slight differences in the measurements occur despite careful technique. What type of error is illustrated in this situation? A. Random C. Systematic B. Determinate D. Gross Error

D. Salmonella muenchen

This has been identified to be a microbial contaminant in thyroid tablets: A. Clostridium tetani C. Coliforms B. Serratia marcescens D. Salmonella muenchen

D. Number of microorganisms present in a product

What is a bioburden? A. A microorganism present in parenterals B. A pathogen with high virulence C. Number of microorganisms present in a medical device that renders it ineffective D. Number of microorganisms present in a product

C. They are gamma-hemolytic Streptococci

To differentiate groups of Streptococci, you inoculated three species in blood agar plates, and evaluated the changes after 24 hours. Which of the following statements describes the bacteria present in Plate X? Plate X The agar remained red Plate Y Partial greenish discoloration Plate Z Complete light/greenish discoloration A. They are alpha-hemolytic Streptococci B. They are beta-hemolytic Streptococci C. They are gamma-hemolytic Streptococci D. The bacteria present is S. pyogenes

B. S. pyogenes

Two beta-hemolytic Streptococcus species were inoculated into agar plates with a Bacitracin disc. Only one of them had a zone of inhibition (ZOI) present. What bacteria was present in that plate? A. S. agalactiae B. S. pyogenes C. Viridans streptococci D. S. pneumoniae

A. There is a recurrence of fever every 48 hours for Tertian malariae

Which of the following is/are true? A. There is a recurrence of fever every 72 hours for Tertian malariae B. P. ovale and P. vivax are benign tertian malariae C. Maurer’s clefts are diagnostic markers for P. falciparum D. P. malariae causes quartan malaria

C. M. tuberculosis

The causative agent of the White Plague. A. Y. pestis C. M. tuberculosis B. Yellow Fever Virus D. L. donovani

A. Streptomycin

The drug of choice for Bubonic Plague and Tularemia: A. Streptomycin C. Azithromycin B. Ciprofloxacin D. Doxycycline

B. Piezophiles

These are microorganisms who thrive under extreme hydrostatic pressures. A. Psychrophiles C. Hyperthermophile B. Piezophiles D. Capnophile

C. Giardia: falling leaf motility

Which of the following pairs is correct? A. Proteus: tumbling motility C. Giardia: falling leaf motility B. Listeria: darting motility D. Vibrio: corkscrew motility

B. Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus

This microorganism preys on other Gram negative bacteria. A. Haemophilus influenzae C. Serratia marcescens B. Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus D. Mycoplasma hominis

C. S. saprophyticus

Based on the following results of your laboratory experiment, which bacteria is being described? Catalase - (+) Coagulase - (-) Novobiocin - Resistant A. S. aureus C. S. saprophyticus B. S. epidermis D. S. pyogenes

D. All Staphylococci are catalase-positive

Which of the following is/are true? A. All Staphylococci are positive for catalase and coagulase tests B. All Streptococci are Novobiocin-resistant C. All Staphylococci are coagulase-negative D. All Staphylococci are catalase-positive

C. Welch Method: Acid-Fast Bacilli Rationale: Welch: Capsule

Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. Negative Stain: Capsule B. Schaeffer-Fulton: Endospore C. Welch Method: Acid-Fast Bacilli D. Ziehl-Neelsen: Acid-Fast Bacilli

B. Methylene Blue

The counterstain for acid-fast staining methods: A. 20% Copper Sulfate C. Carbolfuchsin B. Methylene Blue D. Safranin

D. None of the statements are true

Spirochetes are made up of rigid spirals with variable numbers of turns. Spirillum are thin, flexible coiled cells. A. The first statement is true B. The second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. None of the statements are true

D. Exotoxin is heat labile

Which of the following statements is correct? A. Endotoxins can be found in Gram negative and Gram positive B. Exotoxins are released when cells die C. Endotoxin is produced by pathogens only D. Exotoxin is heat labile

B. Secretion of large amounts of water into the colon

The enterotoxin of Vibrio cholerae stimulates adenylate cyclase activity leading to reduced adsorption of Na+ and Cl- and increased secretion of bicarbonate. What would be its effect on the body? A. Blockade of nerve impulses in a state of relaxation B. Secretion of large amounts of water into the colon C. Cause mucosal damage and diarrhea D. Cause necrosis

D. Stimulation of the CNS vomiting center

If the food contains a preformed heat stable enterotoxin of Staphylococcus aureus, what will be its effect on the bodywhen ingested? A. Necrosis of the epithelial lining of the upper respiratory tract B. Mucosal damage and diarrhea C. Causes rash, fever, and shock D. Stimulation of the CNS vomiting center

B. Capsules

This virulence factor of S. pneumoniae aids in resisting phagocytosis: A. Pili C. Collagenase B. Capsules D. Hyaluronidase

C. EHEC can cause Montezuma’s Revenge

True about the following E. coli strains, except: A. ETEC can cause mild to severe Traveler’s Diarrhea B. EPEC causes diarrheal disease in infants C. EHEC can cause Montezuma’s Revenge D. EIEC gives rise to bacillary dysentery

B. R. prowazekii: louse (mike louwazekii) Rationale:

• R. rickettsii: tick (tickettsii)

• R. typhi: flea

• C. burnetii: none

Which of the following pairs is correct? A. R. rickettsii: mosquito C. R. typhi: none B. R. prowazekii: louse D. C. burnetii: mite

D. Injection

Which of the following is not used in biological warfare?

A. Airborne agents

B. Water borne agents

C. Food contaminants

D. Injection

A. Quorum sensing

This is the cell-cell communication mechanism of bacteria. A. Quorum sensing C. Efflux pumps B. Biofilm formation D. Pyocyanin

C. Trichophyton

A dermatophyte that causes an athlete’s foot infection. A. Tinea pedis C. Trichophyton B. Tinea unguium D. Microsporum

A. Filoviridae: St. Louis Encephalitis

Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. Filoviridae: St. Louis Encephalitis B. Flaviviridae: Zika Virus C. Filoviridae: Marburg Virus D. Flaviviridae: West Nile Fever

B. Statement II is true

Dengue has three serotypes. All of its serotypes have the same vector: Aedes aegypti. A. Statement I is true C. Both statements are true B. Statement II is true D. Both statements are false

D. They are not cells

Incorrect about viruses, except: A. They rely on ribosomes for protein synthesis B. Their genome can be both DNA and RNA C. They have a metabolic ability of their own D. They are not cells

C. Lenacapavir

This was named the “2024 Breakthrough of the Year”, citing its “astonishing 100% efficacy” in one large efficacy trial in women to prevent HIV. A. Leritrelvir C. Lenacapavir B. Remdesivir D. Simnotrelvir

D. Also known as 1st Disease

True about Rubeola: A. Also known as 3rd Disease B. Caused by Parvovirus B19 C. Also known as German Measles D. Also known as 1st Disease

C. Cytomegalovirus

This herpes virus is asymptomatic in normal people, but can cause retinitis and pneumonia in immunosuppressed patients. A. Herpes Simplex Type I C. Cytomegalovirus B. Varicella Zoster D. Epstein-Barr Virus

D. Hepatitis B is not self-limiting

True about Hepatitis B, except: A. Immunization is available against hepatitis A and B B. Entecavir stops HBV from replication in the liver C. Resistance may occur in long-term treatment with Lamivudine D. Hepatitis B is not self-limiting

B. Echinococcus granulosus: dog hookworm

Which of the following pairs is incorrect? A. Ancylostoma caninum: dog hookworm B. Echinococcus granulosus: dog hookworm C. Dipylidium caninum: dog tapeworm D. Echinococcus granulosus: dog tapeworm

C. Vitamin B12

A patient infected with broad fish tapeworm may also be deficient in this vitamin. A. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin B5 D. Vitamin B6

B. It is an endoparasite

True about Ascaris lumbricoides: A. It is an ectoparasite B. It is an endoparasite C. It is also known as threadworm D. It is also known as pinworm

B. Proglottids

This is where the reproductive structures of cestodes can be located. A. Germinal region C. Rostellum B. Proglottids D. Scolex

A. The vector of T. cruzi is the kissing bug

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The vector of T. cruzi is the kissing bug B. The vector of T. gambiense differs from the vector of T. rhodesiense C. The vector of Leishmania spp. is the kissing bug D. The vector of Chagas disease is the sandfly

B. Giardia lamblia

This pathogen is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, and can be treated with metronidazole, tinidazole, or mepacrine. A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Balantidium coli B. Giardia lamblia D. Entamoeba histolytica

A. Skin or Nerve Biopsy Rationale:

• Sputum culture - Tuberculosis
• Widal test- Typhoid fever
• Scrapings of lesion - syphilis

Diagnostic Test for Hansen’s Disease: A. Skin or Nerve Biopsy C. Widal Test B. Sputum Culture D. Scrapings of lesion

B. Urine Rationale:

• Stool - S. mansonii (eggs, lateral spine) & S. japonicum (eggs)

What sample from a patient should be analyzed for the presence of eggs and/or spine of a S. haematobium? A. Stool C. Blood B. Urine D. Saliva

B. Variola Virus (small pox)

The causative agent of the disease was eradicated worldwide in 1980. A. Vaccinia Virus C. Varicella Zoster Virus B. Variola Virus D. Poxviridae

B. Localized: formation of pus Rationale: Localized - confined to a small area, Pyogenic - formation of pus

The different types of infections, except: A. Opportunistic: infection when normal host defenses are compromised B. Localized: formation of pus C. Generalized: spreads throughout the body D. Fulminant: infections that occur suddenly and overwhelm the body

D. IgM

This immunoglobulin provides protection against pathogens while the concentrations of IgG are still low. A. IgA C. IgD B. IgE D. IgM

D. II only Rationale:

• T lymphocytes - desTroys
• B lymphocytes - make antiBodies

Which of the following statements correctly describe the adaptive immune response? I. Both T cells and B lymphocytes differentiate in the thymus II. Cytotoxic T cells can kill virus-infected cells III. Helper T cells become antibody secreting cells or plasma cells upon activation IV. B lymphocytes activate other cells of the immune system A. I, II, III, IV C. II, III, and IV B. IV only D. II only

B. Basophils Rationale:

• Eosinophils - role in parasite infections
• Monocytes - diff in the tissues into macrophages

These polymorphonuclear leucocytes are similar to mast cells. A. Monocytes C. Neutrophils B. Basophils D. Eosinophils

B. The transmission of disease from humans to animals. Rationale:

• Anthropozoonosis - animals to humans
• Amphixenoses - animals to humans and vice versa

Zooanthroponosis refers to: A. The transmission of disease from animals to humans B. The transmission of disease from humans to animals. C. Vector-borne diseases D. Communicable diseases from animals

A. The first documented patient in a disease epidemic within a population.

What is an index case? A. The first documented patient in a disease epidemic within a population. B. The first documented case that led to a pandemic. C. The first documented patient which infected at least 10 other patients. D. The documented case where diagnosis remains unverified.

B. It is a killed vaccine its duration of immunity is years – throughout life.

Bacillus-Calmette Guérin is primarily used to prevent this tuberculosis. Which of the following statements correctly describes this vaccine?

A. It is a live vaccine; it is usually less effective than killed vaccines.

B. It is a killed vaccine; its duration of immunity is years – throughout life.

C. It is a live vaccine; it mimics natural infection.

D. It is a killed vaccine; multiple doses are usually required.

B. Polio Rationale: Typhoid, Yellow fever, and Mumps are attenuated vaccines.

There is an attenuated and inactivated vaccine available for this infection: A. Typhoid C. Yellow Fever B. Polio D. Mumps

C. Disinfection Rationale:

• Disinfection - excluding bacterial spores
• Sterilization - all forms of microbial life
• Sanitization - reduce likelihood of cross-contamination
• Pasteurization - purpose of killing pathogenic bacteria

This refers to the process wherein microorganisms are eliminated excluding bacterial spores. A. Sterilization C. Disinfection B. Sanitization D. Pasteurization

A. Genetic Diseases Rationale: Triple Burden of Disease

• Communicable diseases
• Non-communicable diseases
• Diseases of Rapid Urbanization & Industrialization

=One of these does not belong to the Triple Burden of Disease. A. Genetic Diseases C. Mental Illnesses B. Tuberculosis D. Cancer

C. Number of occupations

One of these does not belong to the vital statistics in public health. A. Number of deaths C. Number of occupations B. Number of births D. Number of marriages