Evolve Intro & Skeletal Disorders

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Directly from practice quizzes and Evolve modules

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156 Terms

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Sickle cell anemia

An autosomal recessive disorder

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A chondrosarcoma is a:

A malignant tumor of cartilage

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Dysplasia

An alteration in the size, shape, and organization of adult cells, usually due to an irritant

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Exudate

A byproduct of inflammation that is composed of fluid, cells, and cellular debris that escapes the vessels and is deposited in the tissues

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Capillary dilation

Begins the process of inflammation

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All of the following are examples of additive diseases, except: ascites, pneumonia, hemorrhage, or osteoporosis

Osteoporosis

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Characteristics of malignant tumors

Rapid growth and ability to metastasize

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What type of disease of the immune system results in the body becoming allergic to itself?

Autoimmune diseases

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True or false: Additive diseases are those that absorb more x-rays than normal tissues

True

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Thrombus

A fixed blood clot that develops on a vessel wall that can obstruct blood flow

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Homozygous

When a trait of an offspring is inherited as a dominant allele from both parents

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Incidence

Measure of disease process reports the number of newly diagnosed cases in a particular time period

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What are causes of DNA mutations?

Radiation, viruses, or spontaneous

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Embolus

A blood clot that is carried along by the bloodstream to lodge in a distant site

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Inflammation

The body’s common response to many different causative agents, such as infections and trauma

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How is natural, passive immunity obtained?

Through breast milk or maternal blood

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Atrophy

A reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue, with a corresponding decrease in function

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Adenoma

A benign tumor of a gland

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Immunodeficiency diseases

A disease of the immune system that results in the body becoming prone to opportunistic infections that would not cause serious illness in a healthy person

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What is the purpose of inflammation?

To prepare the body for healing and repair

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What are the signs and symptoms of inflammation?

Calor, rubor, and tumor

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Diseases caused by the body’s inability to process nutrients needed to carry out functions

Metabolic diseases

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Cells of benign tumors similar to normal cells

Differentiated

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Petechia

A very small hemorrhage

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Heterozygous

When a trait of an offspring is inherited as a dominant from one parent and a recessive from another

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Pathology

the specialized branch of medicine that focuses on the study of disease, including the origin, nature, and structural and functional changes caused by disease

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How is natural, active immunity acquired?

Through exposure to disease

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What do vaccines provide?

Acquired, active immunity

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All of the following are examples of autosomal dominant hereditary diseases, except: Huntington disease, Marfan syndrome, Tay-Sachs disease, or achrondroplasia

Tay-Sachs disease

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What is the function of leukocytes in the process of inflammation?

Remove dead cells

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Purpura

A hemorrhage of up to 1cm in size

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Mortality rate

The number of deaths due to a particular disease in a given time frame

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True or false: hereditary diseases can only be passed to offspring if both parents possess the defective gene

True

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Hematoma

The medical term for a bruise

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Hypertrophy

An increase in cell size in response to an increase in workload

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All of the following are signs and symptoms of inflammation, except: pain, swelling, paralysis, or redness

Paralysis

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The broad pathology classification systems

Causative agents and body system

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What would be an appropriate technique adjustment to make when imaging a patient with known osteoporosis?

Decrease the kVp

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Idiopathic

The term that describes diseases of unknown etiology

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True or false: when imaging a patient with a destructive disease, the exposure factors should be decreased

True

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Immunodeficiency disorders

Diseases that attack the natural immune system of the body and create a lack of resistance to other microorganisms

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What is the appropriate technique adjustment when imaging a patient with a known pleural effusion?

Increase the kVp

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Congenital

Diseases that are present at birth

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What does not cause an infarct?

Ecchymosis

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Endogenous

Diseases caused by an internal agent

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Hangman’s fracture

A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation or C2 and C3

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An inherited disorder of connective tissue characterized by multiple fractures

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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An expansile lucent lesion demonstrating a sharp demarcation from normal adjacent bone having a thin sclerotic rim

Unicameral cyst

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A true osteochondroma grows laterally from the epiphysis and must exhibit:

A cortex and medullary portion

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A tumor growing parallel to the bone and points away from the adjacent joint

Osteochondroma

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Growth of outer bone diameter is dependent upon which bone cell?

Osteoblasts

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To assess bone mineral content from a qualitative approach, the best imaging modality is:

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)

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Herniation of the meninges in the lumbar or cervical vertebra

Meningocele

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A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection

Pathologic fracture

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The bone lesion typically seen as a small (less than 1cm) round area with a lucent center

Osteoid osteoma

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Bone that develops within the connective tissue

Intramembranous ossification

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In Paget’s disease, the beginning phase involves bone _____

Destruction

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A cyst-like lesion causing ballooning and possibly having internal septations

Aneurysmal bone cyst

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The most common form of dwarfism caused by decreased enchondral bone formation

Achondroplasia

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A fracture usually caused by falling on an outstretched hand resulting in posterior displacement of the distal fragment of the radius

Colles’ fracture

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A classic sunburst pattern of bony spicules that extend in a radiating fashion is a radiographic appearance of:

Osteogenic sarcomas

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The hollow, tube-like structure within the diaphysis

Medullary cavity

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Malunion

Healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position

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Body weight on weight-bearing bones may bend or bow as a result of softened bones in cases of:

Osteomalacia

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Complete fracture

Discontinuity of two or more fragments

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Transitional vertebra

A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine

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Osteoarthritis

The most common form of degenerative arthritis that has osteophyte development

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To demonstrate degenerative knee joint narrowing most accurately requires the image to be:

Weight bearing standing AP and lateral

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Lobulated borders from endosteal scalloping containing focal areas of high signal intensity on T2 weighted MRI images is suggestive of an:

Enchondroma

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A weblike arrangement of marrow-filled spaces separated by thin bone

Cancellous bone

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The disorder in which the disease process begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane causing synovial proliferation

Rheumatoid arthritis

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The fluid-filled sac located near joints becomes inflamed, which results in:

Bursitis

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The modality that best demonstrates early changes in osteomyelitis

MRI

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The secondary ossification center in a long bone

Epiphysis

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Malignant bone lesions cause soft-tissue swelling and:

Cortical bone erosion, causing a poorly defined margin

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The classic radiographic appearance of multiple punched-out osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the skeletal system is suggestive of:

Multiple myeloma

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A rare hereditary bone dysplasia involving the bone resorption mechanism of calcified cartilage

Osteoporosis

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Proliferation of fibrous tissue in the medullary cavity

Fibrous dysplasia

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When a pyogenic organism enters the joint through the blood, direct extension, or trauma

Infectious arthritis

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Primary malignant tumors arising from the bone marrow of long bones in children and young adults, usually causing localized pain

Ewing’s sarcoma

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The most common initial site of Paget’s disease

Pelvis

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A disease process usually caused by accelerated bone resportion

Osteoporosis

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Osteoclastic cell

A cell associated with bone resorption and bone removal

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Suspected non-accidental trauma of children

Battered-child syndrome

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Which modality best demonstrates menisci tears?

MRI

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An insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton appearing as a loss of bone density

Osteomalacia

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Which modality best demonstrates rotator cuff tears?

MRI

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For brittle bone disease, the radiographer should _____ (increase, decrease) technique factors

Decrease kVp

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The modality that best detects asymptomatic bone metastases

Radionuclide bone scan

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Forward displacement of one vertebra on the other, resulting in back pain caused by cleft in the pars interarticularis

Spondylolisthesis

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Osteomyelitis is characterized by the result of:

Bacteria, pyogenic, or postoperative complications

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Disease characterized as blood levels with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage

Gout

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Periosteum

A fibrous membrane that covers the outer bone

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A pattern of lytic and sclerotic new bone growth with a flattening of the femoral head associated with periosteal new bone

Ischemic necrosis

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The disorder that begins as a bone abscess that travels through the medullary cavity and outward to lift the periosteum

Osteomyelitis

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The study of the cause of disease

Etiology

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Diseases that result from an abnormal cellular proliferation and function

Neoplastic

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Stenosis

A narrowed region of a vessel that can cause ischemia

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<p>How would the pathology evident be categorized?</p>

How would the pathology evident be categorized?

Destructive

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The predicted course of a disease, including the probable outcomes

Prognosis