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300 English flashcards in Question-and-Answer style covering key concepts, definitions, mechanisms, clinical features, and antidotes from Module 4 (Toxicology) lecture notes.
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What branch of pharmacology studies poisons, their mechanisms, and their treatment?
Toxicology
What is the estimate of potential effects of a poison on human health and the environment called?
Risk assessment
In toxicology, how is a Hazard defined?
The ability of a chemical agent to cause injury in a given situation or setting
In toxicology, how is Risk defined?
The expected frequency of an undesirable effect arising from exposure to a chemical or physical agent
Which Latin phrase by Paracelsus means “the dose makes the poison”?
Sola dosis facit venenum
What term is used for a naturally occurring poison produced by living organisms?
Toxin
What term is used for a man-made or artificial poison?
Toxicant
Name the two major CNS pathophysiologic mechanisms caused by poisons.
CNS stimulation and CNS depression
Severe CNS stimulation may progress to what life-threatening complication?
Seizures that can lead to brain damage
Loss of airway protective reflexes and respiratory drive indicate which pathophysiologic mechanism?
CNS depression
Which mnemonic summarizes muscarinic (parasympathomimetic) poisoning signs?
DUMBELS
In the DUMBELS mnemonic, what does the letter “M” represent?
Miosis or Muscle fasciculations
Which mnemonic summarizes classic sympathomimetic effects?
MATHS
In the MATHS mnemonic, what does “H” stand for?
Hypertension
Name two common cardiovascular effects produced by many poisons.
Cardiac arrhythmias and altered vascular tone (vasodilation or vasoconstriction)
Aspiration of gastric contents can lead to what respiratory consequence?
Bronchospasm or chemical pneumonitis
Interference with oxygen transport and utilization produces which cellular condition?
Cellular hypoxia
Rhabdomyolysis with myoglobinuria may ultimately damage which organ?
The kidneys (renal failure)
Which FDA pregnancy category signifies proven teratogenic risk and is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Category X
Which antibiotic class can cause permanent tooth discoloration in the fetus?
Tetracyclines
Which mood stabilizer is classically associated with Ebstein’s anomaly?
Lithium
Prenatal exposure to which drug caused clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix?
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
List three hallmark features of fetal alcohol syndrome.
Facial anomalies, growth retardation, and neurodevelopmental defects
Immediate effects of a poison are seen after what type of exposure?
A single (acute) administration
Are carcinogenic and teratogenic effects usually reversible or irreversible?
Irreversible
Phenol producing a skin burn is an example of which effect type—local, remote, or systemic?
Local effect
Paraquat ingestion producing pulmonary fibrosis represents which effect type?
Remote effect
Which mnemonic lists major causes of high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis?
MUDPHILES
What does the “M” in MUDPHILES stand for?
Methanol
For ingested toxins, what time frame defines an acute exposure?
Less than 24 hours after a single administration
In exposure classification, how long does chronic exposure last?
More than 3 months
Which head and neck position optimizes airway patency during initial resuscitation?
The sniffing position
Neck manipulation should be avoided in airway management under what circumstance?
When a neck (cervical spine) injury is suspected
Give one toxin that can cause flaccid paralysis of ventilatory muscles.
Botulinum toxin (others: neuromuscular blockers)
Which gas binds hemoglobin with high affinity and causes cellular hypoxia?
Carbon monoxide
Name an opioid that can depress the CNS and impair ventilation.
Morphine (any potent opioid)
What is the adult antidote dose for hypoglycemia?
50 mL of 50 % dextrose IV (25 g)
What is the initial naloxone dose for suspected opioid intoxication?
0.2–0.4 mg IV or IM
Which specific antidote reverses benzodiazepine overdose?
Flumazenil
What does the AMPLE mnemonic stand for in the secondary survey?
Allergies, Medications, Past medical history/Pregnancy, Last meal, Events
For dermal chemical exposure, how long should the skin be rinsed with water?
Approximately 30 minutes
Which topical agent is recommended for hydrofluoric acid burns?
Calcium soaks (e.g., calcium gluconate gel or solution)
What immediate step is required for inhalational poisonings?
Remove the patient from the toxic environment and administer oxygen
How long should the eyes be irrigated after a chemical splash?
At least 15 minutes (about 2 L of solution)
What charcoal-to-toxin weight ratio is recommended when giving activated charcoal?
10 : 1
Give one substance poorly adsorbed by activated charcoal.
Iron (others: lithium, alcohols, cyanide, heavy metals)
Which emetic agent is used when other decontamination methods are unavailable?
Syrup of ipecac
Name one contraindication to gastric lavage.
Ingestion of corrosive substances
Why are sodium- or magnesium-containing cathartics contraindicated in renal insufficiency?
Because electrolyte accumulation may worsen renal function
Whole-bowel irrigation uses a solution containing what osmotic agent?
Non-absorbable polyethylene glycol with balanced electrolytes
Which binding resin can be given orally for lithium toxicity?
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate®)
What type of antidote competes for the same receptor as the poison?
Pharmacologic antidote
Give an example of a physiologic antidote used for anaphylaxis.
Epinephrine
How does sodium thiosulfate act in cyanide poisoning?
It chemically converts cyanide to thiocyanate, a less toxic water-soluble compound
Name the three classic ingredients of the historical “universal antidote.”
Activated charcoal, magnesium oxide, and tannic acid
Which specific antidote is indicated for paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose?
N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)
Which two drugs are routinely used to treat organophosphate poisoning?
Atropine and pralidoxime
Deferoxamine is the antidote for toxicity from which metal?
Iron
Which cardio-selective beta-blocker treats theophylline or caffeine toxicity?
Esmolol
Which two agents can be used as competitive substrates for alcohol dehydrogenase in methanol poisoning?
Ethanol and fomepizole
Forced alkaline diuresis is most useful for eliminating which class of drugs?
Weak acids
Which IV agent is used to alkalinize the urine?
Sodium bicarbonate
Give two criteria that favor dialyzability of a toxin.
Water solubility and volume of distribution less than 1 L/kg (also low protein binding, MW < 500 Da)
Which extracorporeal technique is only 10–15 % as effective as hemodialysis?
Peritoneal dialysis
Name two toxic alcohols commonly encountered in industry or households.
Methanol and ethylene glycol
What clinical phase of ethylene glycol poisoning occurs 30 minutes to 12 hours post-ingestion?
CNS depression (first stage)
Visual disturbances in methanol poisoning are primarily due to accumulation of which metabolite?
Formic acid (formate)
What drug is a direct alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor used in methanol poisoning?
Fomepizole
Formaldehyde exposure primarily irritates which body surfaces?
Oral, pharyngeal, and conjunctival mucous membranes
Hydrocarbon toxicity is usually a consequence of what event?
Aspiration into the lungs
Which aromatic hydrocarbon is linked to acute myeloblastic leukemia?
Benzene
Which gas smells like bitter almonds and blocks cytochrome oxidase?
Hydrogen cyanide
Name one natural food source that can release cyanide.
Cassava (others: bitter almonds, lima beans, Prunus seeds)
What is the first drug administered from a cyanide kit?
Amyl nitrite (inhaled) to induce methemoglobinemia
Hydroxocobalamin binds cyanide to form what nontoxic compound?
Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12)
Hydrogen sulfide has what characteristic odor?
Rotten eggs
Which therapy delivering 100 % oxygen under pressure is useful for cyanide or CO poisoning?
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Alkali ingestion causes what type of tissue necrosis?
Liquefactive necrosis
What readily available kitchen item can be given orally for strong acid ingestion?
Egg whites (albumin) to coat the mucosa
Phenol contact initially produces what skin color change?
Blanched (white) discoloration followed by corrosive burns
Which yellow food dye is notorious for anaphylactoid reactions?
Tartrazine (FD&C Yellow No. 5)
A collection of flushing and tachycardia after eating high-MSG food is called what?
Chinese Restaurant Syndrome
What common biochemical mechanism underlies heavy-metal toxicity?
Binding to sulfhydryl (-SH) groups of enzymes, causing inactivation
Which chelating agent is known as British Anti-Lewisite?
Dimercaprol (BAL)
Which oral chelator is a water-soluble derivative of BAL?
Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, succimer)
What drug of choice chelates ferric iron in iron poisoning?
Deferoxamine
Penicillamine is the first-line chelator for excess of which metal?
Copper (as in Wilson’s disease)
Which chelator displaces calcium as it binds divalent metals such as lead?
Calcium disodium EDTA (CaNa2 EDTA)
Acute arsenic poisoning imparts what odor to the victim’s breath?
Garlic odor
Transverse white lines across the nails caused by chronic arsenic exposure are called what?
Mee’s lines
Lead inhibits which heme-synthesizing enzyme commonly used for diagnosis?
δ-Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) dehydratase
Weakening of wrist and finger extensors from lead exposure is known as what?
Lead palsy
What is the approximate half-life of lead in bone?
About 32 years
Itai-itai disease was traced to chronic poisoning by which metal?
Cadmium
Chronic inorganic mercury poisoning (Mad Hatter’s disease) is characterized by which triad?
Gingivitis, tremors, and neuropsychiatric changes
Pink discoloration of hands and feet from mercury exposure is called what?
Acrodynia
Eating fish high in methylmercury led to what historically famous neurologic disease?
Minamata disease
Children often suffer iron poisoning after ingesting what household item?
Over-the-counter iron tablets or vitamins
Copper deposition in the corneal limbus of Wilson’s disease forms what ring?
Kayser-Fleischer ring
Which air pollutant binds hemoglobin 200× more avidly than oxygen?
Carbon monoxide