Toxicology

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300 English flashcards in Question-and-Answer style covering key concepts, definitions, mechanisms, clinical features, and antidotes from Module 4 (Toxicology) lecture notes.

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255 Terms

1
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What branch of pharmacology studies poisons, their mechanisms, and their treatment?

Toxicology

2
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What is the estimate of potential effects of a poison on human health and the environment called?

Risk assessment

3
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In toxicology, how is a Hazard defined?

The ability of a chemical agent to cause injury in a given situation or setting

4
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In toxicology, how is Risk defined?

The expected frequency of an undesirable effect arising from exposure to a chemical or physical agent

5
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Which Latin phrase by Paracelsus means “the dose makes the poison”?

Sola dosis facit venenum

6
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What term is used for a naturally occurring poison produced by living organisms?

Toxin

7
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What term is used for a man-made or artificial poison?

Toxicant

8
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Name the two major CNS pathophysiologic mechanisms caused by poisons.

CNS stimulation and CNS depression

9
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Severe CNS stimulation may progress to what life-threatening complication?

Seizures that can lead to brain damage

10
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Loss of airway protective reflexes and respiratory drive indicate which pathophysiologic mechanism?

CNS depression

11
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Which mnemonic summarizes muscarinic (parasympathomimetic) poisoning signs?

DUMBELS

12
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In the DUMBELS mnemonic, what does the letter “M” represent?

Miosis or Muscle fasciculations

13
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Which mnemonic summarizes classic sympathomimetic effects?

MATHS

14
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In the MATHS mnemonic, what does “H” stand for?

Hypertension

15
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Name two common cardiovascular effects produced by many poisons.

Cardiac arrhythmias and altered vascular tone (vasodilation or vasoconstriction)

16
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Aspiration of gastric contents can lead to what respiratory consequence?

Bronchospasm or chemical pneumonitis

17
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Interference with oxygen transport and utilization produces which cellular condition?

Cellular hypoxia

18
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Rhabdomyolysis with myoglobinuria may ultimately damage which organ?

The kidneys (renal failure)

19
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Which FDA pregnancy category signifies proven teratogenic risk and is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Category X

20
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Which antibiotic class can cause permanent tooth discoloration in the fetus?

Tetracyclines

21
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Which mood stabilizer is classically associated with Ebstein’s anomaly?

Lithium

22
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Prenatal exposure to which drug caused clear-cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix?

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

23
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List three hallmark features of fetal alcohol syndrome.

Facial anomalies, growth retardation, and neurodevelopmental defects

24
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Immediate effects of a poison are seen after what type of exposure?

A single (acute) administration

25
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Are carcinogenic and teratogenic effects usually reversible or irreversible?

Irreversible

26
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Phenol producing a skin burn is an example of which effect type—local, remote, or systemic?

Local effect

27
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Paraquat ingestion producing pulmonary fibrosis represents which effect type?

Remote effect

28
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Which mnemonic lists major causes of high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis?

MUDPHILES

29
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What does the “M” in MUDPHILES stand for?

Methanol

30
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For ingested toxins, what time frame defines an acute exposure?

Less than 24 hours after a single administration

31
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In exposure classification, how long does chronic exposure last?

More than 3 months

32
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Which head and neck position optimizes airway patency during initial resuscitation?

The sniffing position

33
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Neck manipulation should be avoided in airway management under what circumstance?

When a neck (cervical spine) injury is suspected

34
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Give one toxin that can cause flaccid paralysis of ventilatory muscles.

Botulinum toxin (others: neuromuscular blockers)

35
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Which gas binds hemoglobin with high affinity and causes cellular hypoxia?

Carbon monoxide

36
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Name an opioid that can depress the CNS and impair ventilation.

Morphine (any potent opioid)

37
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What is the adult antidote dose for hypoglycemia?

50 mL of 50 % dextrose IV (25 g)

38
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What is the initial naloxone dose for suspected opioid intoxication?

0.2–0.4 mg IV or IM

39
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Which specific antidote reverses benzodiazepine overdose?

Flumazenil

40
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What does the AMPLE mnemonic stand for in the secondary survey?

Allergies, Medications, Past medical history/Pregnancy, Last meal, Events

41
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For dermal chemical exposure, how long should the skin be rinsed with water?

Approximately 30 minutes

42
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Which topical agent is recommended for hydrofluoric acid burns?

Calcium soaks (e.g., calcium gluconate gel or solution)

43
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What immediate step is required for inhalational poisonings?

Remove the patient from the toxic environment and administer oxygen

44
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How long should the eyes be irrigated after a chemical splash?

At least 15 minutes (about 2 L of solution)

45
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What charcoal-to-toxin weight ratio is recommended when giving activated charcoal?

10 : 1

46
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Give one substance poorly adsorbed by activated charcoal.

Iron (others: lithium, alcohols, cyanide, heavy metals)

47
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Which emetic agent is used when other decontamination methods are unavailable?

Syrup of ipecac

48
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Name one contraindication to gastric lavage.

Ingestion of corrosive substances

49
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Why are sodium- or magnesium-containing cathartics contraindicated in renal insufficiency?

Because electrolyte accumulation may worsen renal function

50
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Whole-bowel irrigation uses a solution containing what osmotic agent?

Non-absorbable polyethylene glycol with balanced electrolytes

51
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Which binding resin can be given orally for lithium toxicity?

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate®)

52
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What type of antidote competes for the same receptor as the poison?

Pharmacologic antidote

53
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Give an example of a physiologic antidote used for anaphylaxis.

Epinephrine

54
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How does sodium thiosulfate act in cyanide poisoning?

It chemically converts cyanide to thiocyanate, a less toxic water-soluble compound

55
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Name the three classic ingredients of the historical “universal antidote.”

Activated charcoal, magnesium oxide, and tannic acid

56
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Which specific antidote is indicated for paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose?

N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)

57
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Which two drugs are routinely used to treat organophosphate poisoning?

Atropine and pralidoxime

58
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Deferoxamine is the antidote for toxicity from which metal?

Iron

59
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Which cardio-selective beta-blocker treats theophylline or caffeine toxicity?

Esmolol

60
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Which two agents can be used as competitive substrates for alcohol dehydrogenase in methanol poisoning?

Ethanol and fomepizole

61
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Forced alkaline diuresis is most useful for eliminating which class of drugs?

Weak acids

62
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Which IV agent is used to alkalinize the urine?

Sodium bicarbonate

63
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Give two criteria that favor dialyzability of a toxin.

Water solubility and volume of distribution less than 1 L/kg (also low protein binding, MW < 500 Da)

64
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Which extracorporeal technique is only 10–15 % as effective as hemodialysis?

Peritoneal dialysis

65
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Name two toxic alcohols commonly encountered in industry or households.

Methanol and ethylene glycol

66
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What clinical phase of ethylene glycol poisoning occurs 30 minutes to 12 hours post-ingestion?

CNS depression (first stage)

67
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Visual disturbances in methanol poisoning are primarily due to accumulation of which metabolite?

Formic acid (formate)

68
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What drug is a direct alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor used in methanol poisoning?

Fomepizole

69
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Formaldehyde exposure primarily irritates which body surfaces?

Oral, pharyngeal, and conjunctival mucous membranes

70
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Hydrocarbon toxicity is usually a consequence of what event?

Aspiration into the lungs

71
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Which aromatic hydrocarbon is linked to acute myeloblastic leukemia?

Benzene

72
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Which gas smells like bitter almonds and blocks cytochrome oxidase?

Hydrogen cyanide

73
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Name one natural food source that can release cyanide.

Cassava (others: bitter almonds, lima beans, Prunus seeds)

74
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What is the first drug administered from a cyanide kit?

Amyl nitrite (inhaled) to induce methemoglobinemia

75
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Hydroxocobalamin binds cyanide to form what nontoxic compound?

Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12)

76
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Hydrogen sulfide has what characteristic odor?

Rotten eggs

77
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Which therapy delivering 100 % oxygen under pressure is useful for cyanide or CO poisoning?

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

78
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Alkali ingestion causes what type of tissue necrosis?

Liquefactive necrosis

79
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What readily available kitchen item can be given orally for strong acid ingestion?

Egg whites (albumin) to coat the mucosa

80
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Phenol contact initially produces what skin color change?

Blanched (white) discoloration followed by corrosive burns

81
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Which yellow food dye is notorious for anaphylactoid reactions?

Tartrazine (FD&C Yellow No. 5)

82
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A collection of flushing and tachycardia after eating high-MSG food is called what?

Chinese Restaurant Syndrome

83
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What common biochemical mechanism underlies heavy-metal toxicity?

Binding to sulfhydryl (-SH) groups of enzymes, causing inactivation

84
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Which chelating agent is known as British Anti-Lewisite?

Dimercaprol (BAL)

85
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Which oral chelator is a water-soluble derivative of BAL?

Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA, succimer)

86
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What drug of choice chelates ferric iron in iron poisoning?

Deferoxamine

87
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Penicillamine is the first-line chelator for excess of which metal?

Copper (as in Wilson’s disease)

88
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Which chelator displaces calcium as it binds divalent metals such as lead?

Calcium disodium EDTA (CaNa2 EDTA)

89
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Acute arsenic poisoning imparts what odor to the victim’s breath?

Garlic odor

90
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Transverse white lines across the nails caused by chronic arsenic exposure are called what?

Mee’s lines

91
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Lead inhibits which heme-synthesizing enzyme commonly used for diagnosis?

δ-Aminolevulinic acid (ALA) dehydratase

92
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Weakening of wrist and finger extensors from lead exposure is known as what?

Lead palsy

93
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What is the approximate half-life of lead in bone?

About 32 years

94
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Itai-itai disease was traced to chronic poisoning by which metal?

Cadmium

95
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Chronic inorganic mercury poisoning (Mad Hatter’s disease) is characterized by which triad?

Gingivitis, tremors, and neuropsychiatric changes

96
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Pink discoloration of hands and feet from mercury exposure is called what?

Acrodynia

97
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Eating fish high in methylmercury led to what historically famous neurologic disease?

Minamata disease

98
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Children often suffer iron poisoning after ingesting what household item?

Over-the-counter iron tablets or vitamins

99
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Copper deposition in the corneal limbus of Wilson’s disease forms what ring?

Kayser-Fleischer ring

100
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Which air pollutant binds hemoglobin 200× more avidly than oxygen?

Carbon monoxide