O's and P general and airframe

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180 Terms

1
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What is meant by the capacity rating of a lead-acid battery?

The number of hours a battery can supply a given current flow

2
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What electrolyte is used in a lead acid battery?

A mixture of sulfuric acid and water

3
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Does the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery increase or decrease as the battery becomes discharged?

it decreases

4
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What is the specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery?

Between 1.275 and 1.300

5
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how many cells are there in a 24 volt lead acid battery?

12

6
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What is the range of temperatures of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery that does not require a correction when measuring it’s specific gravity?

Between 70 degree and 90 degree

7
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How do you treat a lead acid battery compartment to protect it from corrosion?

Paint it with an asphaltic (tar-base) paint or with a polyurethane enamel.

8
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What is used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from a lead acid battery?

A solution of bicarbonate of soda and water.

9
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how high should the electrolyte level be in a properly serviced lead acid battery ?

Only up to the level of the indicator in the cell

10
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Why is the closed circuit voltage of a lead acid battery lower than its open circuit voltage?

Voltage is dropped across the internal resistance of the battery

11
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What gases are released when a lead acid battery is being charged?

hydrogen and oxygen

12
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What is the electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery ?

Potassium hydroxide and water

13
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Why is the hydrometer not used to measure the state of charge of a nickel cadmium battery?

The electrolyte of a nickel cadmium battery does not enter in the chemical changes that occur when the battery is changed or discharged. it’s specific gravity does not change appreciably

14
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Is the electrolyte level of a nickel cadmium battery lowest when the battery is fully charged or fully discharged?

Fully discharged

15
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What is a result of cell imbalance in a nickel cadmium battery?

The low internal resistance allows current to flow between the unbalanced cells and generate heat.

16
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What is thermal runaway?

The large current flow allowed by the low internal resistance causes the cells to produce more heat than they can dissipate. the heat further lowers the internal resistance so more current can flow ; this continues until the battery destroys itself.

17
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How many thermal runaway be prevented?

By carefully monitoring the temperature of the cells and controlling the charging current prevent an excess of current flowing into the battery.

18
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How is it possible to know when a nickel cadmium battery is fully charged?

Completely discharged the battery and give it a constant current charge to 140% of it’s amp hour capacity.

19
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What is used to neutralize spilled electrolyte from a nickel cadmium battery?

A solution of boric acid and water.

20
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What happens to the current in a conductor if the length of the conductor is doubled with all other parameters unchanged?

The resistance of the conductor would double and current flow would be decreased.

21
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What is meant by tare weight?

The weight of any chocks and other items that are used to hold the aircraft on the scales.

22
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What is included in the empty weight of an aircraft?

The airframe, engines, and all permanently installed operating equipment, along with fixed ballast, unusable fuel, and undrainable oil

23
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What equipment must be installed in an aircraft when it is weighed to find it’s empty weight center of gravity?

All the equipment listed in the Aircraft Equipment List as “required equipment” or as equipment that is permanently installed.

24
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What is meant by permanent ballast for an aircraft?

Weight that is permanently installed in an aircraft to bring the empty weight center of gravity into allowable limits.

25
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What is meant by the maximum zero fuel weight of an aircraft?

The maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, cargo, etc) less it’s fuel.

26
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What is meant by the datum that is used for weight and balance computations?

It is a readily identified reference chosen by the aircraft manufacturer from which all longitudinal locations on the aircraft are referenced.

27
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What is meant by t he moment in the computation n of weight and balance?

A force that tends to cause rotation. it is the product of t he weight of an object in pounds and the distance of the objects from the datum in inches.

28
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What is meant by the arm of an item installed in an aircraft?

The distance, in inches, between the center of gravity of the item and the datum

29
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What is meant by a moment index?

A moment divided by a constant such as 10, 100, or 1000.

30
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What is meant by the center of gravity range?

The distance in inches between the forward allowable center of gravity and the rearward allowable center of gravity.

31
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What is a loading envelope?

The enclosed area on a graph of an airplane loaded weight and CG location. if lines drawn from the weight and CG cross within this envelope the airplane is properly loaded

32
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What is meant by permanent ballast for an aircraft?

Weight that is permanent installed in an aircraft to bring the empty weight center of gravity into allowable limits

33
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Of what material are most low pressure rigid fluid lines made?

1100-1/2 hard or 3003-1/2 hard aluminum alloy tubing.

34
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Is the size of a rigid fluid line determined by its inside or its outside diameter?

By its outside diameter

35
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What is the difference between the flare angle for aircraft and automotive fittings?

Aircraft fitting have a 37 degree flare angle and automotive fitting use 45 degree

36
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Where are quick disconnect fluid line couplings normally used in an aircraft hydraulic system?

In the lines that connect the engine driven pump into the hydraulic system

37
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Is the size of a flexible hose determined by its inside or its outside diameter?

By its inside diameter

38
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what kind of rope is best to tie down an aircraft?

Nylon or polypropylene

39
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What kind of knot is used for securing an airplane with a rope?

Bowline

40
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When starting an aircraft engine equipped with a float carburetor, in what position should the carburetor heat control be placed?

In the cold position

41
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What is meant by a liquid lock in the cylinder of an aircraft engine, and how is it cleared?

occurs when a cylinder is filled with a non-compressible liquid (usually oil or fuel) to the point where it prevents the piston from completing its stroke remove the spark plugs from the affected cylinders, then rotate the engine's propeller by hand to force the liquid out

42
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What is the procedure if a hung start occurs when stating a turbojet engine?

Terminate the starting operation and find the reason the engine would not accelerate as it should.

43
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How far ahead of an idling turbojet engine does the danger area extend?

25 feet

44
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What are the control tower light signal that may be used when taxiing or towing and aircraft, and what are their meanings.

A. Flashing green - cleared to taxi

B. Steady red - Stop

C. Flashing red - taxi clear of runway in use

D. Flashing white - return to starting point

E. Alternating red and green - Exercise extreme caution

45
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What is meant by detonation in an aircraft reciprocating engine?

Detonation is an uncontrolled burning of the fuel in the cylinder of an engine, it is an explosion, rather than a smooth burning.

46
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What is it important that turbine fuel not be mixed with aviation gasoline used in an aircraft reciprocating engine?

The turbine engine fuel will cause the engine to detonate severely

47
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What is the danger of using fuel that vaporizes too readily?

Vapor lock can occur in the fuel lines, this will shut off the flow of fuel to the engine.

48
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Who is authorized to perform a 100 hour inspection on an aircraft?

A certificated Aviation Mechanic who holds an Airframe and Powerplant rating.

49
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Who is authorized to perform an annual inspection on an aircraft?

A certificated Aviation Mechanic who holds a inspection Authorization.

50
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Can a certificated A&P mechanic supervise an unlicensed person as the unlicensed person performs a 100 hour inspection on an aircraft?

No and certificated mechanic must perform the inspection

51
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Who is authorized to rebuild an aircraft engine and issue a zero time maintenance?

Only the manufacturer of the engine or a facility approved by the manufacturer.

52
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Which FAR specifies required maintenance records?

14 CFR 91.417 specifies you must keep records of maintenance, preventive maintenance, major repairs and alterations and 100 hour annual and progressive inspections

53
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Are instructions included in the Federal Regulations mandatory or optional?

They are mandatory

54
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Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a major repair?

An aircraft mechanic holding an inspection Authorization

55
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Who is authorized to perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft that is not flown under Part 121, 127, 129, or 135?

The holder of a pilot certificate that flies that particular aircraft

56
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Who is authorized to rebuild an aircraft engine and issue a zero time record?

The manufacturer of the engine or a facility approved by the manufacturer

57
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Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a minor alteration has been perform on the airframe?

A certificated Aviation mechanic holding an Airframe rating

58
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What is the minimum age for an Aviation Mechanic certificate?

18 years old

59
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What are the two ratings that can be issued to an Aviation Mechanic certificate?

Airframe and Powerplant

60
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How many months of practical experience is needed to qualify for the Aviation mechanic certificate with both airframe and powerplant ratings?

30 months

61
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What can be used in place of the 30 months of experience to qualify to take the mechanic test?

A certificated of completion from a certificated aviation maintenance technician school

62
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What type of experience is required to take the tests for aviation mechanic certification?

Practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials. tools, machine tools , and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes, or powerplants appropriate to the rating sought.

63
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What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant has the proper knowledge?

The written knowledge test

64
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What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant has meet the minimum skill requirements ?

The oral and practical tests

65
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What certificate and rating are required for a mechanic to conduct a 100 hour inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service?

A certificated Aviation mechanic holding an Airframe and powerplant rating

66
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What certificate and rating are required for a mechanic to conduct an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service?

A certificated Aviation mechanic with an inspection authorization

67
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When, after making a permanent change of address, is the holder of an Aviation Mechanic certificate required to notify the FAA?

Within 30 days

68
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is it permissible for a mechanic with an airframe and powerplant rating to replace the tachometer cable for a magnetic drag tachometer?

Yes, this does not constitute a repair to an instrument

69
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is a certificated Aviation Mechanic with an Airframe and Powerplant rating allowed to zero the pointers on a fuel pressure gauge?

No, a mechanic is not allowed to make any repairs or alterations to an aircraft instrument

70
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What record must be made of the compliance of an airworthiness directive?

An entry must be made in the aircraft maintenance records stating that the AD has been complied with. This entry must include the AD number and revision date, the date of compliance, the aircraft total time in service, the method of compliance and whether or not this is a recurring AD. If it is a recurring AD, the time of next compliance must be noted.

71
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What minimum information must be contained in a maintenance record?

  • Description of Work Performed: Clearly outline the maintenance tasks completed.

  • Date of Completion: Include the exact date the maintenance was performed.

  • Signature and Certificate Number: The mechanic or authorized person must sign and provide their certificate number.

72
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What is done with the aircraft maintenance records that include the current status of the applicable airworthiness directives when the aircraft is sold?

These maintenance records must be transferred with the aircraft when it’s sold.

73
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What is a type certificate Data sheet?

A Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) is a document that defines the type design of an aircraft, engine, or propeller, specifying its critical parameters and limitations for airworthiness. It essentially outlines the "birth certificate" of the product, detailing the regulations and conditions under which it is certified as airworthy

74
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What are Aircraft specifications?

Dimensions: Length, wingspan, height, and other physical measurements.

Materials: Types of materials used in the airframe, engines, and other components.

Structural Limits: Maximum load factors, stress limits, and other structural parameters.

Equipment: avionics, navigation systems, communication systems, and other onboard equipment.

75
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What documents specifies the type of fuel that should be used in an airplane?

TCDS for that airplane

76
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What documents would you use to find the control surface movement for a specified airplane?

The TCDS for that airplance

77
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Why is it necessary to refer to the TCDS for an airplane when conducting a 100 hour inspection?

The TCDS includes the specs required for the aircraft to maintain it’s airworthy status

78
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What FAA publication describes methods of the nondestructive testing?

AC 43-3, Nondestructive Testing in Aircraft

79
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What is the purpose of an AD?

It provides guidance and information to the owner and operators of the aircraft informing them of the discovery of a condition that prevents the aircraft from continuing to meet it’s conditions for airworthiness

80
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What is the first step in the issuance of an AD?

A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) is published in the Federal Register.

81
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How is information on an AD disseminated?

It is printed and distributed by first class mail to the registered owners and certain known operators of the products affected.

82
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What type of AD may be adopted without an NPRM?

ADs of an urgent nature are issued as immediately adopted rules without prior notice.

83
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where can you find a list of all the ADs that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances?

On the FAA’s website under the Dynamic Regulatory Systems (DRS)

84
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How can you get information on subscribing to the Airworthiness?

Contact FAA, Manufacturing Standards section (AFS-613), PO Box 26460, Oklahoma city,OK 73125-0460

85
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What is the significance of the identification number 91-08-07 R1?

91 - This AD was issued in 1991

08 - This AD was issued in the eighth bi weekly period (15th or 16th week) of 1991

07 - This is the seventh AD issued during this period

R1 - This is the first revision of this AD

86
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Is it mandatory that the information in an AC be complied with?

No, This information is advisory in nature.

87
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With which part of 14 CFR is AC 43.13-1B associated?

14 CFR Part 43

88
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May all of the information in AC 43.13-1b be used as approved data?

No it is accountable, but not necessarily approved data

89
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What is the purpose of General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts?

They contain information gleaned from Malfunction and Defect Reports to warn maintenance personnel of problems that have been reported.

90
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What formula is used to find the amount of work done when an object is moved across a floor?

Work= Force x Distance

91
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What determines the mechanical advantage of an arrangement of ropes and pulleys?

The number of ropes that support the weight

92
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What determines the mechanical advantage of a gear train?

The ratio between t he number of teeth on the drive and the number teeth on the driven gear

93
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What are two types of fluids?

Liquids and gaseous

94
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What is meant by the density of a fluid?

The mass-per-unit volume of the fluid.

95
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What is meant by the specific gravity of a fluid?

The ratio of the density of the fluid to the density of pure water.

96
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What effect does the increase in temperature of a confined gas have on it’s pressure?

When the volume of a gas remains constant, and increase in it’s temperature increases it’s pressure.

97
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What effect does high humidity have on piston engine performance?

Water vapor is less dense than dry air and thus high humidity decreases the density of the air. The less dense air decreases engine performance.

98
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How many cubic inches of fluid is forced out of a cylinder by a piston with an area of 20 square inches, when the piston moves five inches?

100 cubic inches.

99
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What will happen to the pressure of confined gas if the temperature of the gas is increased?

The pressure will increase.

100
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What is meant by the density of air?

The weight of a given volume of air.