SWT301-NHS-S2

Q. 901: An employee s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot become negative, but it can be calculated to zero. The bonus is based on the duration of the employment. An employee can be employed for less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10 years. Depending on this period of employment, an employee will get either onus or a bonus of 10%, 25% or 35%.

How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the onus?

A. 3.

B. 5.

C. 2.

D. 4.

D

Q. 902: Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?

A. Experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about software failures.

B. Risk analysis performed at the beginning of the project.

C. Use Cases derived from the business flows by domain experts.

D. Expected results from comparison with an existing system.

A

Q. 903: Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are poor

specifications and time pressures?

A. Use Case Testing.

B. Condition Coverage.

C. Exploratory Testing.

D. Path Testing.

C

Q. 904: Which one of the following techniques is structure-based?

A. Decision testing.

B. Boundary value analysis.

C. Equivalence partitioning.

D. State transition testing.

A

Q. 905: You have started specification-based testing of a program. It calculates the

greatest common divisor (GCD) of two integers (A and B) greater than zero.

calcGCD (A, B);

TC

A

B

1

1

1

2

INT_MAX

INT_MAX

3

1

0

4

0

1

5

INT_MAX+1

1

6

1

INT_MAX+1

The following test cases (TC) have been specified.

TC A B

1 1 1

2 INTMAX INTMAX

3 1 0

4 0 1

5 INT_MAX+1 1

6 1 INT_MAX+1

INT_MAX: largest Integer

Which test technique has been applied in order to determine test cases 1 through 6?

A. Boundary value analysis.

B. State transition testing.

C. Equivalence partitioning.

D. Decision table testing.

A

Q. 906: Consider the following state transition diagram and test case table:

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. The test case table exercises the shortest number of transitions.

B. The test case gives only the valid state transitions.

C. The test case gives only the invalid state transitions.

D. The test case exercises the longest number of transitions.

A. Only A is true; B, C and D are false.

B. Only B is true; A, C and D are false.

C. A and D are true; B, C are false.

D. Only C is true; A, B and.

B

Q. 907: Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager and tester?

A. The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and controls to be used.

B. The test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies, automates and executes tests.

C. The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests.

D. The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

B

Q. 908: Which of the following can be categorized as product risks?

A. Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests.

B. Political problems and delays in especially complex areas in the product.

C. Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics.

D. Problems in defining the right requirements, potential failure areas in the software or system.

C

Q. 909: Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?

A. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks.

B. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, degree of tester independence and product completeness.

C. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, time to market and product completeness, availability of testable code.

D. Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost.

A

Q. 910: As a Test Manager you have the following requirements to be tested:

Requirements to test:

R1 - Process Anomalies High Complexity

R2 - Remote Services Medium Complexity

R3 Synchronization Medium Complexity

R4 Confirmation Medium Complexity

R5 - Process closures Low Complexity

R6 Issues Low Complexity

R7 - Financial Data Low Complexity

R8 - Diagram Data Low Complexity

R9 - Changes on user profile Medium Complexity

Requirements logical dependencies (A -> B means that B is dependent on A.:

How would you structure the test execution schedule according to the

requirement dependencies?

A. R4 > R5 > R1 > R2 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.

B. R1 > R2 > R3 > R4 > R5 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.

C. R1 > R2 > R4 > R5 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.

D. R1 > R2 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R4 > R5 > R6 > R9.

C

Q. 911: What is the benefit of independent testing?

A. More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.

B.

Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.

C. Independent testers do not need extra education and training.

D. Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

B

Q. 912: Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?

A. Skill and staff shortages.

B. Poor software characteristics.

C. Failure-prone software delivered.

D. Possible reliability defect (bug).

A

Q. 913: As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?

A. The number of test cases using Black Box techniques.

B. A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals.

C. Overall evaluation of each development work item.

D. Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort.

B

Q. 914: You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829?

A. Impact, incident description, date and time, your name.

B. Unique id for the report, special requirements needed.

C. Transmitted items, your name and you re feeling about the defect source.

D. Incident description, environment, expected results.

A

Q. 915: Regression testing can be applied to which of the following?

I. Functional testing
II. Non-functional testing
III. Structural testing

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

D

Q. 916: Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a keyworddriven test execution tool?

A. A table with test input data, action words, and expected results, controls execution of the system under test.

B. Actions of testers recorded in a script that is rerun several times.

C. Actions of testers recorded in a script that is run with several sets of test input data.

D. The ability to log test results and compare them against the expected results, stored in a text file.

A

Q. 917: Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation?

A. To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices.

B. To determine use, management, storage, and maintenance of the tool and test assets.

C. To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.

D. To reduce the defect rate in the Pilot Project.

D

Q. 918: Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software development and test organization would like to achieve.

Which of these goals would best be supported by a test management tool?

A. To build traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs.

B. To optimize the ability of tests to identify failures.

C. To resolve defects faster.

D. To automate selection of test cases for execution.

A

Q. 919: The digital "Rainbow Thermometer" uses 7 colors to show the ambient temperature. Each color spans a range of just 5 Deg. C, with an operating minimum and maximum of minus 5 Deg. C and 30 Deg.C. Which of the following values is LEAST likely to have been identified when applying the boundary value test design technique?

A. 30 Deg. C

B. 0 Deg. C

C. 8 Deg. C

D. 15 Deg.C

C

Q. 920: Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?

a. They support traceability of tests to source documents.

b. They provide an interface to test execution tools.

c. They help to enforce coding standards.

d. They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.

A. a and c

B. b and c

C. a and b

D. b and d

C

Arial">Q. 921: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

A. To verify the success of corrective actions.

B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.

C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.

D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.

C

Q.922: Which of the following structure-based test design technique would be most likely to be applied to?

1 Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands.

2 An invalid transition between two different area s statuses.

3 The business process flow for mortgage approval.

4 Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.

A. 2, 3 and 4

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3

C

Q. 923: Which test requires the execution of the software component?

A. Formal inspection
B. Dynamic testing
C. Code walkthrough
D. Execution testing

B

Q.924: What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

A. to know when a specific test has finished its execution

B. to ensure that the test case specification is complete

C. to set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D. to determine when to stop testing

D

Q.925: Maintenance testing is:

A. updating tests when the software has changed

b. testing a released system that has been changed

C. testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

D. testing to maintain business advantage

B

Q.926: Error guessing is best used:

A. after more formal techniques have been applied

B. as the first approach to deriving test cases

C. by inexperienced testers

D. after the system has gone live

A

Q.927: For which of the following test cases does test coverage analysis not assign the highest priority?

A. The ones that cover the most important quality risk

B. The ones that cover the requirements

C. The ones that cover conditions
D. The ones that cover the functions

C

Q.928: Consider the following decision table.

Given this decision table on Car Rental, what is the expected result for the following test cases?

Conditions

Rule 1

Rule 2

Rule 3

Rule 4

Over 23?

F

T

T

T

Clean Driving Record

Don t Care

F

T

T

On Business?

Don t Care

Don t Care

F

T

Actions

Supply Rental Car?

F

F

T

T

Premium Charge?

F

F

F

T

TCI: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record
TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record

A. TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.

B. TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.

C. TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.

D. TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.

C

Q.929: Requirement 24.3. A 'Postage Assistant' will calculate the amount of postage due for letters and small packages up to 1 kilogram in weight. The inputs are: the type of item (letter, book or other package) and the weight in grams. Which of the following conform to the required contents of a test case?

A. Test the three types of item to post and three different weights [Req 24.3]

B. Test 1: letter, 10 grams, postage 0.25. Test 2: book, 500 grams, postage 1.00. Test 3: package, 999 gram, postage 2.53 [Req 24.3]

C. Test 1: letter, 10 grams to Belgium. Test 2: book 500 grams to USA. Test 3: package, 999 grams to South Africa [Req 24.3]

D. Test 1: letter 10 grams, Belgium, postage 0.25. Test 2: package 999 grams to South Africa, postage 2.53

B

Q.930: Acceptance testing may occur at more than just a single test level. With the exception of:

A. A COTS software product may be acceptance tested when it is installed or integrated.

B. Acceptance testing of the usability of a component may be done during component testing.

C. Acceptance testing after a change has been released to the user community.
D. Acceptance testing of a new functional enhancement may come before system testing.

C

style="mso-bidi-font-weight: normal">Q. 931: Integrity testing involves:

A. The testing of pseudo code

B. Performance testing

C. Alpha testing

D.The final phase of testing prior to deployment

D

Q. 932: As a moderator in a typical formal review, what can be one of your responsibilities?

A. Deciding on the execution of reviews
B. Documenting all the issues and problems
C. Leading the review o f the documents
D. Identifying and describing the findings

C

Q.933: Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution:

A. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.

B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.

C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

D. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

C

Q.934 Which of the following is not appropriate for testing interactions between paths?

A. Path that people are particularly likely to follow

B. Choices at one menu level or data entry screen can affect the presentation of choices elsewhere

C. Test reaction to all combinations of valid and invalid inputs

D. Randomly select different paths in each test cycle

C

Q.935: Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

A. to ensure that all of the small components are tested

B. to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

C. to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

D. to specify how the software should be divided into components

E. to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once

E

Q. 936: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a walkthrough?

A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.

B

Q. 937: Where may functional testing be performed?

A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.

B

Q. 938: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B. To identify defects in any software work product.
C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.

B

Q. 939: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.

A

Q. 940: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

A. Measuring and analyzing results.
B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
D. Assessing if more tests are needed.

B

Correct Answers to Earlier Questions - Q. 931 to Q 940 are at the end of this page:

Q. 941: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched

off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?
A. 15,19 and 25.
B. 17,18 and19.
C. 18, 20 and22.
D. 16, 26 and 32.

A

Q. 942: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100

C

Q. 943: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?

A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.

B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced.

C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.

D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.

B

Q. 944: What determines the level of risk?

A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

D

Q. 945: Which of the following types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY to uncover?

i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system.
ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing.
iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components.
iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.

A. ii, iii.
B. i, iii.
C. iii, iv.
D. i, ii

B

Q. 946: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

C

Q. 947: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?

A. Log defects.
B. Explain the documents to the participants.
C. Gather metrics.
D. Allocate the individual roles.

D

Q. 948: A defect arrival rate curve:

A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.

A

Q. 949: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:

A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.

B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control.

C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.

D. All of the above

A,B

Q. 950: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality?

A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention

A

Q. 951: Bug life cycle

size=2 face=Arial>
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

A

Q. 952: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting

A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author

B

Q. 953: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.

The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

A

Q. 954: Use cases can be performed to test

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing

C

Q. 955: The ___ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing

B

Q. 956: The __ testing is performed at the developing organization s site

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing

C

Q. 957: The software engineer's role in tool selection is

A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools

A

Q. 958: Which is not the software characteristics

A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability

C

Q. 959: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

B

Q. 960: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

B

Q. 961: In a Examination a candidate

has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance values if the student clears the exam.
A. 22,23,26
B. 21,39,40
C. 29,30,31
D. 0,15,22

C

Q. 962: Verification involves which of the following :-

i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

B

Q. 963: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

B

Q. 964: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

C

Q. 965: Static analysis tools are typically used by

A. Testers
B. Developers
C. Testers & Developers
D. None

B

Q. 966: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design

A. Test Case Specification
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Procedure Specification
D. None

C

Q. 967: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as

A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver

B

Q. 968: Which of the following statements are TRUE for informal reviews?

I. Easy to get started and have some benefit
II. Have no or minimal formal process
III. The process must be documented
IV. May include "paired programming"

A. I, II and IV
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, III and IV

A

Q. 969: Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

A. Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.
B. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.
C. Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
D. The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.

B

Q. 970: Testing with out a real plan and test cases is called ---

A. Gorilla testing
B. Monkey testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. All of the above

D

Q. 971: Which rule should not be followed for reviews

A.

Defects and issues are identified and corrected
B. The product is reviewed not the producer
C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the review
D. Each review has a clear predefined objective

C

Q. 972: Which of the following are good candidates for manual static testing?

A. Requirement specifications, test plan, code, memory leaks.
B. Requirement specifications, test cases, user guides.
C. Requirement specifications, user guides, performance.
D. Requirement specifications, website, code, use cases.

B

Q. 973: is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key customers and to marketing for demonstration purposes.

A. Alpha release
B. Beta release
C. Test release document
D. Build

B

Q. 974: Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.
C. Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.
D. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

D

Q. 975: Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?

A. Data tester
B. Boundary tester
C. Capture/Playback
D. Output comparator.

C

Q. 976: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage

B

Q. 977: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

A. Defects
B. Trends analysis
C. Test Effectiveness
D. Time Spent Testing

C

Q. 978: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

A. System testing
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Both B & C

D

Q. 979: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure

1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault

A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
D. All of them are valid reasons for failure

D

Q. 980: Test are prioritized so that:

A. You shorten the time required for testing
B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults

B

Q. 981: Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?

size=2 face=Arial>
A. Component testing should be performed by development
B. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
C. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
D. Component testing does not involve regression testing

D

Q. 982: Equivalence partitioning is:

A. A black box testing technique used only by developers
B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

C

Q. 983: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules

C

Q. 984: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:

1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry exit criteria

s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough

A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

B

Q. 985: Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:

i. Static analysis
ii. Performance testing
iii. Test management
iv. Dynamic analysis
v. Test running
vi. Test data preparation

A. Developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
B. Developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
C. Developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
D. Developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
E. Developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

B

Q. 986: Which of the following statements is NOT true:

A. Inspection is the most formal review process
B. Inspections should be led by a trained leader
C. Managers can perform inspections on management documents
D. Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
E. Inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

D

Q. 987: What can static analysis NOT find?

A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
D. The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
E. Array bound violations

C

Q. 988: What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:

A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software s behaviour
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C. Expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
D. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
E. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

A

Q. 989: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:

i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
C. i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
D. i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

B

Q. 990: Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-

A. Equivalence partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
B. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
C. Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
D. Equivalence Partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

C

Q. 991: Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?

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A. Test Planning and Control
B. Test implementation and Execution
C. Requirement Analysis
D. Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

C

Q. 992: The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:

A. Anomaly Report
B. Defect Report
C. Test Defect Report
D. Test Incident Report

A

Q. 993: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

A

Q. 994: Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?

A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.

C

Q. 995: If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.

A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32,37,40

D

Q. 996: One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II standards.

A. Random testing
B. Data Flow testing.
C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.

D

Q. 997: A piece of software has been given _what tests in the Following will you perform?

1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities

A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
B. 1,2&3 are true.
C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true

A

Q. 998: Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?

A. Usability testing.
B. Statement Coverage.
C. Dataflow testing.
D. Cause-effect graphing.

A

Q. 999: Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:

A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.
B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.
C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.
D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.

C

Q. 1000: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%

To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $28000
D. $33501

D